(A reply to “The United Pentecostal Church and the Evangelical Movement," by J. L. Hall)
In his
book, "The United Pentecostal Church and the Evangelical Movement,"
J. L. Hall made some good points about the possibility of fellowship and
cooperation between the UPC and Evangelical Trinitarian organizations. It is
true that Oneness Pentecostals and Evangelical Trinitarians share numerous
doctrines and concerns in common. In our relationships with Christians who hold
different beliefs and convictions it is often better to light a candle than to
curse the darkness, and we should recognize that all believers are at different
levels of growth and understanding in different areas and that any knowledge
that any of us has is incomplete and the Holy Bible is the final authority.
(Psalm 119:130; 1 Corinthians 8:2; 2 Timothy 3:16-17; 2 Peter 3:18)
While
Evangelical Trinitarians and Oneness Pentecostals do share some fundamental
beliefs in common and there may be valid reasons for not identifying the UPC as
a cult, cultic trends and policies in the UPC are cause for concern. It is not
denying anyone’s sincerity or salvation to be wary of unscriptural doctrines
and practices. In addition to the numerous points made by J. L. Hall, these
should also be considered:
·
The fellowship and cooperation between the
UPC and Evangelical Trinitarian organizations that is proposed would require
Evangelical Trinitarians to compromise doctrines on soteriology and theology,
and the history of the United Pentecostal Church in the Twentieth Century
indicates that such compromise is most likely to be completely one-sided: In
1916 Pentecostals in the Assemblies of God who insisted that Acts 2:38 gives
the baptismal formula left the Assemblies of God to form other groups. In 1936 the
PAJC (Pentecostal Assemblies of Jesus Christ) ratified a five-point agenda with
a view toward merger with the PCI (Pentecostal Church, Incorporated), and this
was rejected by the PCI because of the proposal that the teaching that water
baptism and tongues-talking constitute the new birth be accepted as one of the
fundamental doctrines. At The Merger of the PCI and the PAJC in 1945 the
wording of the Fundamental Doctrine of the UPC (United Pentecostal Church) was
chosen because of the different opinions about whether water baptism and
tongues-talking are causes or consequences of the new birth, and without the
unity clause, that brethren "shall endeavor to keep the unity of the
Spirit" and "shall not contend for their different views to the
disunity of the body," there would have been no merger. John 3:5=Acts 2:38
or Acts-2:38-or-Hell has never been the universal opinion of Oneness
Pentecostals, and current policies of the UPC on soteriology violate the
agreement of The Merger in 1945. It should also be noted that not all early
Oneness Pentecostal leaders adopted the understanding of the Godhead that is
being required in the UPC today, and many Oneness Pentecostals (Howard A. Goss,
Frank Ewart, Andrew Urshan, etc.) taught the triunity of God. Some, such as the
first General Superintendent of UPC Howard A. Goss, insisted that belief in a
Trinity was acceptable and made a distinction between tritheism and
Trinitarianism. The doctrinal statement of the PCI on the Godhead described God
as triune, a Trinity.
·
The theory pushed by Oneness Pentecostals
that a doctrine is proven to be a divine truth by a special revelation without
scriptural support is a form of Gnosticism and not Christian truth. If you
received a "revelation" that you cannot verify with Scripture, you
should seriously wonder which "god" gave you that
"revelation." God reveals himself to man through his Word and
Scripture itself, comparing Scripture with Scripture, is the key to the
interpretation of Scripture (1 Corinthians 2:13; 2 Timothy 2:15), and whether
any of us completely understand or accept a Bible truth does not determine if
it true. (Psalm 3:5-7; Isaiah 55:8-9)
·
“Study to shew thyself approved unto God,
a workman that needeth not to be ashamed, rightly dividing the word of truth.”
(2 Timothy 2:15) Trinitarian Bible proof texts cannot be reconciled to the
Oneness Pentecostalism position without ignoring contexts, grammar, and
meanings of words, while Oneness Pentecostal Bible proof texts can be
reconciled to Trinitarianism without contradiction or distortion.
·
Matthew 28:19 is the only baptismal
command in the New Testament addressed to baptizers, and all baptismal commands
in the Book of Acts are addressed to baptismal candidates. If God had wanted
Acts 2:38 to convey that converts are to be baptized for the sake of Jesus
Christ and as a submission to the authority of Jesus Christ ("In the name
of Jesus Christ") without specifying the words to be spoken by the
baptizer, how would He have changed the wording of Acts 2:38?
·
“And whatsoever ye do in word or deed, do
all in the name of the Lord Jesus, giving thanks to God and the Father by him.”
(Colossians 3:17; a favourite Oneness Pentecostal proof text.) If this Bible
passage requires a verbal recitation of the words “in the name of Jesus” at
water baptism, it also requires Christians to say, “I now chew this food in the
name of Jesus,” “I now kiss you my wife (or husband, child, etc.) in the name
of Jesus,” etc.
·
It is wrong to say that all trinitarians
are guilty of tritheism or of denying the complete deity of Jesus Christ (as
many Oneness Pentecostals contend). It is incorrect to say that the Trinity is
a pagan concept; ancient pagans did not worship any trinity, they worshipped
triads, and a triad is three gods (sometimes in conflict with each other) while
the Trinity is one God existing in three persons. The word Trinity is a
combination of the word "trine," which means threefold or three
times, and the suffix "-ity," which means state, character, or
condition. In other words, God is not triplex (1+1+1), God is triune (1x1x1).
There is one God, and that one God is characterized by interior personal
relationships. (Genesis 1:26-27; 11:6-8; Matthew 28:19; 2 Corinthians 13:14; 1
John 5:7) Since God our Creator is so much higher than us, we should not be
surprised to find difficulties in understanding His nature. (Psalm 97:2)
·
Oneness Pentecostals claim that the
doctrine of the Trinity was made a doctrine by the Roman Catholic Church in the
Nicene Creed. Note that the complete deity of Christ, the virgin birth of
Christ, and the bodily resurrection of Christ are also official doctrines of
the Roman Catholic Church, along with other Bible doctrines. Does this mean we
must deny those doctrines because they are taught by the Roman Catholic Church,
or should we just accept the Holy Bible as the final authority even if the
Roman Catholic Church agrees with the Bible on various points?
·
Oneness Pentecostals try to make it appear
that the Trinitarians were introducing a new doctrine in the 4th
century, but it was the Unitarians that were introducing a new doctrine.
Arianism was introduced early in the 4th century by Arius (256-336 AD), and
this led to various churches and councils adopting creeds and statements of
faith to defend and affirm Bible doctrines taught since the Apostles, such as
the complete deity of Christ, the triunity of God, etc.
·
If God had wanted to convey that the Son
of God is divine, how would he have changed the wording of John 5:18 and
Hebrews 1:8? "Therefore the Jews sought the more to kill him, because he
not only had broken the sabbath, but said also that God was his Father, making
himself equal with God." (John 5:18) "But unto the Son he saith, Thy
throne, O God, is for ever and ever: a sceptre of righteousness is the sceptre
of thy kingdom." (Hebrews 1:8)
·
If Jesus had wanted to convey a
distinction between himself and the Father and the Holy Ghost, how would he
have changed the wording of John 14:23, 24, and 26? "Jesus answered and
said unto him, If a man love me, he will keep my words: and my Father will love
him, and we will come unto him, and make our abode with him. He that loveth me
not keepeth not my sayings: and the word which ye hear is not mine, but the
Father's which sent me." (John 14:23-24) "But the Comforter, which is
the Holy Ghost, whom the Father will send in my name, he shall teach you all
things, and bring all things to your remembrance, whatsoever I have said unto
you." (John 14:26)
·
If Jesus had wanted to convey that he and
the Father have separate wills, how would he have changed the wording of
Matthew 26:39? "And he went a little further, and fell on his face, and
prayed, saying, O my Father, if it be possible, let this cup pass from me:
nevertheless not as I will, but as thou wilt." (Matthew 26:39)
·
If God had wanted to convey that Jesus
Christ was completely God and not just part God how would he have changed the
wording of Colossians 1:19? "For it pleased the Father that in him should
all fulness dwell." (Colossians 1:19)
·
If God had wanted to convey that Jesus'
human nature was not separated from his divine nature how would he have changed
the wording of Mark 2:5-12? "When Jesus saw their faith, he said unto the
sick of the palsy, Son, thy sins be forgiven thee. But there were certain of
the scribes sitting there, and reasoning in their hearts, Why doth this man
thus speak blasphemies? who can forgive sins but God only? And immediately when
Jesus perceived in his spirit that they so reasoned within themselves, he said
unto them, Why reason ye these things in your hearts? Whether is it easier to
say to the sick of the palsy, Thy sins be forgiven thee; or to say, Arise, and
take up thy bed, and walk? But that ye may know that the Son of man hath power
on earth to forgive sins, (he saith to the sick of the palsy,) I say unto thee,
Arise, and take up thy bed, and go thy way into thine house. And immediately he
arose, took up the bed, and went forth before them all; insomuch that they were
all amazed, and glorified God, saying, We never saw it on this fashion."
(Mark 2:5-12)
·
If God had wanted to convey that the
Father and the Lamb are distinct persons how would he have changed the wording
of Revelation 5:1-9? "And I saw in the right hand of him that sat on the
throne a book written within and on the backside, sealed with seven seals. And
I saw a strong angel proclaiming with a loud voice, Who is worthy to open the
book, and to loose the seals thereof? And no man in heaven, nor in earth,
neither under the earth, was able to open the book, neither to look thereon.
And I wept much, because no man was found worthy to open and to read the book,
neither to look thereon. And one of the elders saith unto me, Weep not: behold,
the Lion of the tribe of Juda, the Root of David, hath prevailed to open the
book, and to loose the seven seals thereof. And I beheld, and, lo, in the midst
of the throne and of the four beasts, and in the midst of the elders, stood a
Lamb as it had been slain, having seven horns and seven eyes, which are the
seven Spirits of God sent forth into all the earth. And he came and took the
book out of the right hand of him that sat upon the throne. And when he had
taken the book, the four beasts and four and twenty elders fell down before the
Lamb, having every one of them harps, and golden vials full of odours, which
are the prayers of saints. And they sung a new song, saying, Thou art worthy to
take the book, and to open the seals thereof: for thou wast slain, and hast
redeemed us to God by thy blood out of every kindred, and tongue, and people,
and nation." (Revelation 5:1-9)
·
In Acts 2:38, why is the command to repent
given in the second person plural while the command to be baptized is given in
the third person singular? If God had wanted the baptismal command to be
directed to people who have already repented and been forgiven how would he
have changed the wording of Acts 2:38 and Acts 3:19? "Then Peter said unto
them, Repent, and be baptized every one of you in the name of Jesus Christ for
the remission of sins, and ye shall receive the gift of the Holy Ghost." (Acts
2:38) "Repent ye therefore, and be converted, that your sins may be
blotted out, when the times of refreshing shall come from the presence of the
Lord." (Acts 3:19)
·
If Mark 16:16 were changed to read
"He that believeth and pays tithes (or other Christian activity) shall be
saved, but he that believeth not shall be damned," would you assume that
tithing (or whatever Christian activity is inserted) is a prerequisite for
salvation?
·
B-o-r-n does not spell baptized. John 3:5
was a response to the supposition that the new birth could be wrought through
physical means, such as childbirth. (John 3:4) There are always cases of people
assuming that they are saved because they were born and raised in a certain
religion or denomination or assuming that they were saved through rituals and
ceremonies, and this was true of many when Christ walked the earth. (John
1:12-13; 3:1-6) The new birth is a personal experience with Jesus Christ. (John
3:5-16; Titus 3:5-7)
·
“Jesus answered and said unto him, Art
thou a master of Israel, and knowest not these things?” (John 3:10) Christ was
teaching something Nicodemus should have already known through familiarity with
Old Testament teachings about the Holy Spirit’s work of supernatural change in
the lives of people in the new covenant age. (Ezekiel 11 & 36, Jeremiah 31,
etc.)
·
It is noteworthy that there are
substantial differences in the prophecies of Ezekiel and Jeremiah regarding the
new birth (Ezekiel 11 & 36, Jeremiah 31) and Joel’s prophecy about the
outpouring of the Holy Spirit during the Christian era. (Joel 2:28-29; compare
Acts 2:17-18; further study and research is encouraged.)
·
“Behold, I give unto you power to tread on
serpents and scorpions, and over all the power of the enemy: and nothing shall
by any means hurt you. Notwithstanding in this rejoice not, that the spirits
are subject unto you; but rather rejoice, because your names are written in
heaven.” (Luke 10:19-20) “Then said Jesus to them again, Peace be unto you: as
my Father hath sent me, even so send I you. And when he had said this, he
breathed on them, and saith unto them, Receive ye the Holy Ghost” (John
20:21-22) The disciples were saved, had power over devils, and received the
Holy Ghost, in a different sense, before the Pentecost experience of Acts 2.
Compare John 20:22-23 with Acts 1:5, and John 14:16 with Acts 2:8; the
disciples already had the ministry of reconciliation, that is instrumental
participation in pardon through declaring the terms of God’s forgiveness, and
they had the Holy Spirit as helper, advocate, etc., and they were promised that
there was more power to come.
·
Note that “baptisms” in Hebrews 6:2 is
plural. Spirit baptism refers to the act (new birth) by which the Holy Ghost
incorporates a repentant sinner into the body of Christ and refers to an
experience after salvation in which believers receive supernatural power from
God; attention to context is essential. New Testament passages used to prove
baptismal regeneration, salvation by water baptism, refer to the new birth. If
God had wanted Mark 16:16, Romans 6:3-5, 1 Corinthians 12:13, Galatians 3:27,
& Colossians 2:12 to refer to baptism into the body of Christ, which occurs
when a lost and repentant sinner puts his faith in Jesus Christ for salvation
and can only be done by the Holy Ghost, how would he have changed the wording
of these passages? “He that believeth and is baptized shall be saved; but he
that believeth not shall be damned.” (Mark 16:16) "Know ye not, that so
many of us as were baptized into Jesus Christ were baptized into his death?
Therefore we are buried with him by baptism into death: that like as Christ was
raised up from the dead by the glory of the Father, even so we also should walk
in newness of life. For if we have been planted together in the likeness of his
death, we shall be also in the likeness of his resurrection." (Romans
6:3-5) "For by one Spirit are we all baptized into one body, whether we be
Jews or Gentiles, whether we be bond or free; and have been all made to drink
into one Spirit." (1 Corinthians 12:13) "For as many of you as have
been baptized into Christ have put on Christ." (Galatians 3:27)
"Buried with him in baptism, wherein also ye are risen with him through
the faith of the operation of God, who hath raised him from the dead."
(Colossians 2:12)
·
1 Peter 3:21 says that water baptism
satisfies the demands of a good conscience and is figurative
(symbolic/declarative) of salvation. How can a figure be that of which it is a
figure? If God had wanted to convey that Noah's safety during the deluge was the
outward confirmation of the grace he had already received years earlier
(Genesis 6:8) and that, in the same way, Christian baptism is the outward
confirmation of the grace a Christian had already received when he trusted
Jesus Christ as Savior how would God have changed the wording of 1 Peter
2:20-21? "Which sometime were disobedient, when once the longsuffering of
God waited in the days of Noah, while the ark was a preparing, wherein few,
that is, eight souls were saved by water. The like figure whereunto even
baptism doth also now save us (not the putting away of the filth of the flesh,
but the answer of a good conscience toward God,) by the resurrection of Jesus
Christ." (1 Peter 3:20-21)
·
Faith and repentance are inseparable;
saving faith is the turning to Jesus Christ (God in the flesh) for salvation,
and repentance is the turning from sin to God. (Acts 20:21) The Greek words
rendered "and" (Kai) and "for" (Eis) in Acts 2:38 have many
possible meanings, so whether Acts 2:38 means that repentance or water baptism
is the effective agent for the remission of sins depends on the immediate
context and the context of New Testament teachings, which indicate that
repentance is the effective agent for the remission of sins. (Consider Luke
24:47; Acts 2:21; 3:19; 17:30-31; 11:18; 26:20; 1 Corinthians 1:17; saving
faith is repentant faith.)
·
Wrong conclusions are inevitable when it
is assumed that every spiritual experience mentioned in the New Testament, or
that every blessing of the blood atonement, is a prerequisite for salvation. It
should be noted that the Bible teaches a distinction between various works and
ministries of the Holy Ghost, and not all blessings of the blood atonement are
prerequisites for salvation. Are all the signs mentioned in Mark 16:17-18
expected to accompany the conversion of every Christian? Is there any solid teaching
in the whole Bible that "tongues" must accompany the conversion of
every Christian or is prerequisite for salvation?
·
Ananias addressed Paul (then Saul) as
brother before Paul was baptized in water. (Acts 9:17-18; 22:12-16.) Note that
Acts 22:16 does not say that spiritual cleansing is a result of water baptism
or of the baptizer calling on the name of the Lord. "And now why tarriest
thou? arise, and be baptized, and wash away thy sins, calling on the name of
the Lord." (Acts 22:16) If God had wanted to convey that the washing away
of sins is the result of the convert calling on the name of the Lord how would
He have changed the wording of Acts 22:16?
·
The Ephesian believers were called
disciples before they spake in tongues, and Paul implied that if they had a
Christian baptism they would have heard of the Holy Ghost. (Acts 19:1-6;
consider the wording of Matthew 28:19)
·
If water baptism is part of salvation and
not after salvation, this puts the baptizer in the position of priesthood.
·
Acts 2:38 is a truth, but Jesus is the
truth. (John 14:6) Salvation is a personal experience with Jesus Christ and is
through the finished work of Calvary, not the blood of Christ and additional
supplements. (John 3:13-16; Acts 2:21; 10:43; Romans 5:1-2, 8-11; Ephesians
2:8-9; Titus 3:5-7; I Peter 1:3; I John 5:20)
·
The main hindrance to fellowship and
cooperation between Oneness Pentecostals and Evangelical Trinitarians is the
Us-Only pride and We-Versus-They complex of Oneness Pentecostals. (Psalm
119:63; Mark 9:38-42; Philippians 1:18)