Here are questions every Jehovah’s Witness should be
asked when opportunities arise:
·
Is there anything about the Watchtower
Organization that you do not like or that you find difficult?
·
Do you ever find yourself able to get
along with non-JWs easier or better than you can get along with Jehovah’s
Witnesses? (Watchtower publications say that true Christians have love among
themselves, and that this love is one of the identifying marks of the only true
Christian religion, God’s organization.)
·
Why are Jehovah’s Witnesses instructed to
ask people if they were on the wrong road would they let pride or stubbornness
keep them from admitting it while they are told they must never ask this of
themselves?
·
Does it ever bother you that if you do not
change your beliefs to line up with Watchtower teachings each time the
Watchtower Society changes their teachings you could be considered an apostate
and disfellowshipped?
·
Since the truth never changes do you ever
wonder if a change in Watchtower teachings or policies means they had the truth
and lost or rejected it or were previously teaching a falsehood with which you
were forbidden to disagree?
·
Has anyone ever become convinced of
Watchtower teachings and become a Jehovah’s Witness by just reading the Bible?
·
Why is it important for everyone else to
question their religion but forbidden for Jehovah’s Witnesses to question
theirs?
·
Do you ever find it difficult to
understand how the Watchtower leadership concluded that any particular
Watchtower teaching is based on the clear teachings of Scripture?
·
Does the “New Light” always expound or add
to the “Old Light,” or does the “New Light” ever completely replace or disprove
the “Old Light?”
·
Does the Watchtower Society encourage
personal study, discernment, and growth, or do they require a child-like
dependence?
·
What would happen if a JW followed the
example of the Bereans and critically examined Watchtower teachings to
personally discern if those teachings really are taught in Scripture? (Acts
17:10-11)
·
While the Bible certainly does not condemn
all use of Christian literature and Bible study helps, and Christian books and
magazines (and other materials) can be helpful, where does the Bible indicate
that Christians must submit to the infallible views and interpretations of an
organization or its publications?
·
While Acts 8:30-31 does indicate that
people occasionally need help understanding Scripture, where in this passage is
there any indication of an organization? Since the Ethiopian eunuch never saw
Philip again, where is there any indication that the Ethiopian eunuch had to
join or submit to an organization or anyone? Did Philip use the Bible alone to
expound upon the meaning of Scripture or did he use additional literature? If
the Bible alone was sufficient for Philip and the Ethiopian eunuch, doesn't
this indicate that the Bible itself is sufficient for us also? Where in these
passages is there any support for the teaching that people must join a
particular organization, and submit to the interpretations of that
organization? (Watchtower publications use Acts 8:30-31 to say that the
Watchtower Society is God's only Bible-interpreting organization and that
people cannot understand Scripture without the Watchtower Society.)
·
If the Watchtower Governing Body is
supposed to be God's "Faithful and Discreet Slave" that guides people
in their understanding of Scripture and is God's only channel of truth, then
does the Watchtower interpretation of Matthew 24:45-47 mean that for eighteen
or nineteen centuries God did not have any true representatives on earth?
(Consider Ephesians 4:11-16)
·
Do you ever feel that Watchtower
leadership (Governing Body or local Elders) is intrusive in matters of personal
preference or opinion where no genuine Bible truth, principle, or command is at
stake? (I Peter 5:1-3; 4:15; Romans 14:1-13)
·
Are Jehovah's Witnesses loved and hated
because of their loyalty to Jesus Christ and the word of God or because of
teachings and practices peculiar to the Watchtower organization? (I Timothy
1:3-7)
·
Is the Gospel being proclaimed by
Jehovah’s Witnesses the same Gospel that was preached by Christ and the
Apostles? (The Gospel preached by Christ, the Apostles, and Bible-believing
Christians throughout Christian history is the death, burial, and literal
resurrection of Christ through which repentant sinners are justified through
faith in the person and work of Jesus Christ, and the Gospel being proclaimed
by Jehovah's Witnesses is the re-establishment of God’s kingdom commencing with
the invisible return of Christ in 1914. -John 3:13-15; Acts 4:15-19; I
Corinthians 15:1-4; II Corinthians 11:3-4; Galatians 1:6-8)
·
Why does the Watchtower Society avoid the
possibility that Acts 20:20 refers to house-churches, since the early Christians
usually met for worship in private homes? (Compare Romans 16:5; Colossians
4:15; II Timothy 3:6; Philemon 2)
·
Where is there any reference to an
organization in I Corinthians 1:10, and where in I Corinthians 1:10 (or the
context thereof) are we told that unity is to be achieved by submitting to an
organization? Did the lack of unity among believers at Corinth mean that they
were not Christians? (I Corinthians 1:2, 11-13; Watchtower publications use I
Corinthians 1:10 to teach the importance of complete conformity to the
teachings of the Watchtower Organization and insist that such unity proves that
JWs are the only true Christians and that those who do not have such unity are
false Christians.)
·
Are you aware that the Trinity Doctrine
means that God is triune (1x1x1) and not triplex (1+1+1)? Watchtower
publications often point out that one plus one plus one is three and not one
and insist that the Trinity is a pagan doctrine. Ancient pagans did not worship
any trinity, they worshipped triads. A triad is three distinct gods, while the
Trinity is one God existing in three persons. The word Trinity is a combination
of the word "trine," which means threefold or three times, and the
suffix "-ity," which means state, character, or condition. One God
eternally existing in three persons is one God and not three Gods. God is
characterized by interior personal relationships. (Genesis 1:26-27; 11:6-8) The
terms Father, Son, and Holy Ghost each refer to an aspect of God's nature and
activity in relation to man. (II Corinthians 13:14; Ephesians 2:18, 22; I Peter
1:2) Salvation is an example of this: As the Father, God originates salvation
and made provision for salvation; as the Son, God paid the penalty for sin; as
the Holy Ghost, God applies salvation. (Whether any of us completely understand
or even accept a Bible teaching does not determine if it is the truth. As the
Spirit of God reveals truths to us through the word of God, God becomes more
majestic to us, not simple. -Psalm 97:2)
·
Where in the Bible did Jesus Christ ever
deny His deity?
·
If John 20:17 means that the Father is
God, then why doesn't John 20:28 mean that Jesus is God?
·
If only the Father is God and Jesus is
"a god," then just how many "gods" do JWs have? (If JWs
point to their New World Translation which says Jesus is “a god” in John 1:1,
they should be asked to reconcile this with Isaiah 43:10 and Isaiah 44:8)
·
Why isn't the same rule that is applied to
John 1:1 in the New World Translation, so that it says Jesus was “a god,” also
applied to the other New Testament passages where Theos is used without the
definite article? In the 282 New Testament references to God without using the
definite article with the word Theos the New World Translation usually renders
Theos as "God," such as in Luke 20:38 and John 1:18. Should John 1:18
be changed to say that no man hath seen “a god?” (Incidentally, JWs also point
to John 1:18 which says, "No man hath seen God at any time," and
people did see Jesus Christ. No man hath seen God as He is, only visions or
materializations of God, but there have been those who have seen God manifest
in the flesh. -John 4:24; 6:46; 14:9; Philippians 2:6-7; I Timothy 3:16)
·
Do you believe Jesus is “a god?” Do you
believe Jesus is a true god? If Jesus is a true god how do you reconcile this
with John 17:3? If Jesus is a false god how do you reconcile this with John
1:1? (Watchtower publications say that only the Father is the one true God
Jehovah based on John 17:3 and they say that Jesus Christ is “a god” based on
the New World Translation’s rendering of John 1:1.)
·
If Jesus is not God, how do you reconcile
this with Colossians 1:16 and Isaiah 44:24?
·
Since there is no Bible verse that says
explicitly that the Father is Jehovah should we assume that the Father is not
Jehovah? (Watchtower publications deny the deity of Jesus Christ by saying that
there is no Bible verse that says explicitly that Jesus is Jehovah.)
·
How do you reconcile Isaiah 9:6, where
Jesus is called Mighty God, with Isaiah 10:20-21, Isaiah 43:10 & Isaiah
44:6? There is a contradiction in Scripture unless Jesus is Jehovah. (Note that JWs also may try to say it is incorrect for the KJV to usually
render the Tetragrammaton, the Hebrew name of God, as “LORD” or “GOD” in
upper-case letters and not always render it as “Jehovah.” But note that there
is no completely “accurate” way of translating the Tetragrammaton into another
language, and whether “LORD,” “GOD,” of “Jehovah” is used the English reader
can discern that this is a rendering of the Tetragrammaton.)
·
Whose manifestation and whose kingdom is
referred to in II Timothy 4:1?
·
Who is the First and the Last? (Isaiah
44:6; Revelation 1:8, 17-18; 2:8; 22:13, 16) There is contradiction in
Scripture unless Jesus is Jehovah.
·
Who did Stephen pray to? (Acts 7:59-60)
·
For whom did John the Baptist prepare the
way? (Isaiah 40:3; Matthew 3:1-3; Luke 1:76; also, compare Malachi 3:1 and
Matthew 11:10) There is a contradiction in Scripture unless Jesus is Jehovah.
·
Who is Jehovah of Hosts? (Compare Isaiah
8:13,14 with I Peter 2:7-8 and Isaiah 6:3, 8-10 with Acts 28:25-27) There is
contradiction in Scripture unless Jesus is Jehovah.
·
Who promised the New Covenant? (Jeremiah
31:31-34; Hebrews 10:15-17) There is a contradiction in Scripture unless the
Holy Spirit is Jehovah.
·
Where does the Bible say that the Holy
Spirit is God's active force? Why did Peter say that Ananias had lied to the
Holy Spirit when he had lied to God unless the Holy Spirit is God? (Acts 5:3-4)
How is it even possible to lie to an impersonal force? (Acts 5:3)
·
How do you reconcile the almost exclusive
emphasis of JWs on the name Jehovah with Acts 1:8?
·
Where in the New Testament did Jesus tell
His followers to declare the name Jehovah?
·
Where does the New Testament say that
declaring the name Jehovah is a mark of true Christians?
·
Which name is consistently uplifted in the
New Testament (Jesus or Jehovah)?
·
Why do you assume that the submission or
subjection of Christ to the Father means inferiority? (I Corinthians 15:28;
John 14:28) Does the Bible ever indicate that the headship of a husband over his
wife means that a woman is naturally inferior to men? Do you believe that
compatibility between functional subordination and equality of being is
possible? How do you reconcile the subjection of Christ to Joseph and Mary with
the claim that Jesus Christ is inferior to the Father by His being subject?
(Luke 2:51; John 1:3; I Corinthians 15:28)
·
Where does the Bible say that Jesus is
Michael the Archangel or that Michael the Archangel is Jesus Christ? (Hebrews
1:5-6)
·
Why do you insist that being called “Son”
means that Jesus was created? (Hebrews 1:5) The term "son" is used in
the Bible to denote or imply almost any kind of descent or succession (consider
Exodus 2:10 and Hebrews 1:5,8), and “Son of God” was a messianic title which
signified the function of Deliverer. (E.g., Matthew 16:16; Note that the Devil
tempted Christ by bringing against Him the popular Jewish conceptions of the
Messiah. -Matthew 4:1-11)
·
How does being called “firstborn” mean
that Jesus was created, since firstborn means pre-eminent or the legal heir?
(Colossians 1:15; the nation of Israel was called firstborn even though there
were other nations in existence before the nation of Israel was formed and note
that King David was called firstborn even though he was the youngest son in his
family, and Joseph's son Ephraim is called the firstborn even though Ephraim
was born after Manasseh. –Psalm 89:27; Jeremiah 31:9)
·
Does the use of the word Arche with
Almighty God mean that Almighty God was created? (Revelation 21:6; Watchtower
publications use Revelation 3:14 to say that Jesus is a created angel. But the
word "beginning" in Revelation 3:14 is the rendering of the Greek
word Arche, which means first cause, origin, or source, and is where we get the
English word "architect.”)
·
Where does the Bible say that Jesus Christ
was not bodily resurrected? (Luke 24:36-43; Acts 10:39-41)
·
Where does the Bible say that in heaven
today Jesus Christ does not have a glorified human body? (Colossians 2:9; I
Timothy 2:5)
·
Where does the Bible say that the return
of Christ will not be in visible human form? (Acts 1:9-11) Did Christ ascend
into a literal or figurative cloud? (Acts 1:9)
·
Can you verify that Jerusalem was
destroyed by the Babylonian army in 607 BC and not 586 BC? Does it concern you
that the Watchtower calculations making 1914 the year Christ returned are based
on a date they cannot verify and a prophecy about Nebuchadnezzar
(Nebuchadnezzar’s recovery from lycanthropy) that was fulfilled in
Nebuchadnezzar's lifetime? (Daniel 4:16, 30-36)
·
How do you reconcile the promise of
Matthew 28:20 with the Watchtower teaching that the return of Christ would be
invisible and that He returned invisibly in 1914 AD?
·
If the Second Coming is past and Christ
returned in 1914 AD, why do Jehovah's Witnesses still observe the Memorial
service (Lord’s Supper)? Doesn't this contradict the purpose of the Memorial?
(I Corinthians 11:26)
·
If Jesus was hung on a single upright
pole, a torture stake, and not on a cross then why was more than one nail used
to fasten His hands, and why does the Bible say that the written charge was
placed over His head and not over His hands? (John 20:25; Matthew 27:37)
·
While Ecclesiastes 9:5 & 10 may not
prove there is conscious existence after death, do these passages prove that
there is no conscious existence after death or could these passages and their
context be dealing with the inevitability of physical death? (Hell is a place of unconsciousness and
inactivity when it comes to bodily senses and the affairs of this world.
-Isaiah 63:16; John 9:4; Revelation 14:13) Do you believe that all will receive
the same eternal fate or destiny, whether they are faithful or wicked?
(Ecclesiastes 9:2) Does Ecclesiastes 9:5 mean there will be no resurrection
after this life for anyone?
·
Have you considered the possibility that
Ezekiel 18:4 refers to death in the same sense that Adam and Eve died the very
day they ate the forbidden fruit? (Genesis 2:17; 5:3-5) JWs use Ezekiel 18:4 (another
favourite proof text) to deny the immortality of the human soul. Death means
separation: Physical death is the separation of the soul and body. (Genesis
35:18) Spiritual death is separation of man from God. (Romans 5:12, 17;
Ephesians 2:1; Colossians 2:13; I Peter 4:6)
·
How do you explain Matthew 10:28 and other
passages that make a distinction between the body and the soul?
·
If by "destroy," in Matthew
10:28, Christ meant a termination of existence, then why did He use the Greek
word "apollumi?" Christ used the same word apollumi in Luke 5:37
concerning the destruction of wineskins. If God had wanted the Bible to say or
indicate that the soul and the body are distinct and that the soul is immortal
how would He have changed such passages? (Also, note that while the Bible does
say that animals have souls, the Bible does not say or indicate that animals
have immortal souls. In the Bible the word soul is sometimes used to denote
mere animal or physical life, as Watchtower literature points out, but it
usually means the internal, immaterial aspect or ego of man, and the Bible
makes a distinction between the body and the soul. Need proof? Simply look up
occurrences of the word soul (Hebrew: Nephesh) and pay attention to wording,
grammar, and context.)
·
In Acts 7:59 was Stephen asking Jesus to
take away his bad breath? (Watchtower literature says that the spirit is merely
one's breath.)
·
If the account of Luke 16:27-31 is a
parable and the Rich Man represents false religious leaders and Lazarus
represents true Christians, as is taught in Watchtower publications, then who
were the Rich Man's five brothers and why did he want Lazarus to witness to
them, and why did Jesus portray Abraham as speaking to a man who no longer
existed?
·
If Luke 16:19-31 is a parable (even though
the context gives no indication of this), have you considered that a parable is
an example or picture which verifies something, and a symbol is a small
representation of a greater reality?
·
How can a copy, no matter how exact, be
the original? Is a copy of a CD the original CD? Is a copy of a document the
original document? If God created an exact duplicate of you today and gave it
your exact thoughts, emotions, and memories, would you and your duplicate
always have the same thoughts, emotions, and memories, or would you be separate
people living separate lives? Would you be willing to die so that your
duplicate could continue living your life without you around, since he would
really be you and you would still be living and conscious because he would have
your thoughts, emotions, and memories, your life pattern? (Watchtower
publications deny that physical death is separation of the soul and body, and
that resurrection is a reuniting of the soul and body, by teaching that
resurrection means that God recreates a body with the same life pattern and
memories, an exact copy.)
·
Where does the Bible forbid service in the
armed forces and where in the Bible is any soldier told to resign from the
military?
·
Where does the Bible forbid a medical
blood transfusion to save a human life? (Romans 4:15)
·
Where does the Bible forbid celebrating
religious holidays, such as Christmas and Easter? (Romans 14:1, 4-6. Watchtower
publications point out that there were pagan holidays on those days. The
argument that it would be sinful to celebrate a religious holiday if it is on
the same date as a pagan holiday is a convenient way to make a blanket condemnation,
as it is difficult, if not impossible, to find a date on the calendar that was
never a pagan holiday somewhere; perhaps wedding anniversaries should be
forbidden for this reason. If we are going to nit-pick on details, we should
forbid weddings rings and wedding cakes as they have pagan origins, and we
should forbid calendars, clocks, and watches because the names of the months
and the days of the week have pagan origins and the use of timepieces and the
division of the day into the hours comes from astrology. The Bible condemns
idolatry but not everything pagans happened to do, and it certainly does not
condemn setting aside a day unto the Lord.)
·
Where does the Bible forbid celebrating
birthdays? (Watchtower literature points to two accounts of kings, Herod &
Pharaoh, celebrating their birthdays and having someone killed. It must be
noted that these ancient kings, dictators, had people killed every day and not
just on their birthdays. But note that according to chapter one of The Book of
Job, Job and his family celebrated birthdays and had such a good time at this
that Job felt compelled to offer sacrifices just in case they might have gone
too far in their merrymaking.)
·
While the Bible teaches much about the Old
Covenant for Jews and the New Covenant for Christians, where does the Bible
teach a third arrangement of a "great crowd" of "other
sheep" who do not have a heavenly hope? (John 17:20, 24; I Peter 1:3-4)
·
If Christ had wanted to mean that the
"other sheep" are gentile converts, how would He have changed the
wording of John 10:16 and the context thereof?
·
The New World Translation is consistent in
the punctuation in the dozens of other New Testament passages where Jesus uses
the expression "Truly I tell you" or "Truly I say to you"
("tell" and "say" are the same word in the Greek text); so
why does the New World Translation make an exception in Luke 23:43 and put a
comma after the word “today.” If I were to vocally and personally say something
to you right now it would be obvious that I would be speaking
"today;" where does the context of Luke 23:43 indicate any logical
reason that Jesus would feel the need to verbalize the obvious fact that He was
speaking those words on that very day?
·
Did you know that the Watchtower Society
originally taught that Charles Taze Russell was God’s “faithful and discreet
slave” of Matthew 24:45-46, and how do you explain the Watchtower Society’s
change of position on this fundamental issue?
·
If the Jehovah’s Witnesses are the only
true witnesses for God does this mean that God did not have a witness for over
eighteen centuries, since the Jehovah’s Witnesses did not exist as an
organization until the nineteenth century?
·
According to Acts 2:32, Acts 3:15, Acts
4:33, and Acts 13:30-31, were the early Christians witnesses of Jehovah or of
Jesus Christ?
·
If the “faithful and discreet slave” of
Matthew 24:45-46 that guides people in their understanding of Scripture did not
exist until modern times does this mean that God did not care if anyone
understood the Bible for all the previous centuries?
·
How did anyone understand the Bible during
the centuries prior to the existence of the Watchtower Society? What kind of
God gives His people a Bible without any means of understanding it?
·
If Christ deliberately bypassed the
religious elite and highly educated to reveal truths to ordinary people, and
the Apostles commended and encouraged personal study and discernment, why
should we assume that God intended for people of our generation to receive
(without question or doubt) the interpretations of people claiming to have some
special key to understanding Scripture that ordinary people don't have? If the
Bible is the complete Word of God and the final authority, why should we assume
that God expects people of our generation to interpret Bible passages in
relation to Christian literature or a theologian instead of interpreting Bible
passages in relation to context and the whole Bible? Scripture itself is the
key to the interpretation of Scripture. While there definitely is need for
ministers and Christian literature, and there are difficulties in the Bible,
for the most part the Bible is self-interpreting and self-explanatory when one
is familiar with its contents. (Psalm 119:104,105,130; Proverbs 2:3-6; Acts
20:28; Ephesians 4:11-12; II Timothy 2:15; 3:16-17)
·
Have you ever taken time to personally
look up all the Bible passages cited or referred to in a Watchtower publication
to examine the relationship of each Bible passage to its context and see for
yourself if they are rightly dividing God’s Word or misapplying and misusing
Scripture texts?
·
Does Romans 14:1-12 indicate that it is
acceptable for Christians to differ on some religious issues, especially
conscientious differences of opinion?
·
According to John 5:39-40 is Bible
knowledge sufficient for salvation, and what is required for salvation
according to this passage?
·
Where in the Bible did anyone record their
time in witnessing on paper or have record cards of activity assigned as gauges
or measurements of spirituality? "Jehovah's Witnesses believe that the
entire Bible is the inspired Word of God, and instead of adhering to a creed
based on human tradition, they hold to the Bible as the standard for all their
beliefs." (Reasoning From The Scriptures, p.199) "Because Jehovah's Witnesses
base all of their beliefs, their standards for conduct, and organizational
procedures on the Bible, their faith in the Bible itself as God's Word gives
them the conviction that what they have is indeed the truth. So their position
is not egotistical but demonstrates their confidence that the Bible is the
right standard against which to measure one's religion." (Reasoning From
The Scriptures, p.203-204)
·
Where does the Bible say that a prophet is
no longer a false prophet if he admits he made a mistake after a prophecy
fails? (Consider Deuteronomy 18:20-22; Watchtower publications say the
Watchtower Society is Jehovah’s prophet.)
·
Do the many failed predictions of the
Watchtower Society ever make you question if they really are God’s channel of
truth?
·
Where does the Bible say that a person
must belong to an organization that did not exist until the 19th century to
survive Armageddon?
·
How do you reconcile the Watchtower
teaching that Abraham, Isaac, and Jacob will not reside with Christ in His
heavenly kingdom with Matthew 8:11?
·
How could Christ preach to the “spirits in
prison” who were alive during the days of Noah, and how was the gospel preached
to “them that are dead,” if there is no consciousness after death? (I Peter
3:18-20; 4:5-6)
·
If “the spirits in prison” in I Peter 3:19
refers to demons and not people who died before the resurrection of Christ,
then why did Jesus preach to demons?
·
Why did the Holy Spirit speak directly and
refer to Himself as “me” and “I” in Acts 13:2?
·
If Christ is not God, how do you reconcile
John 17:5 with Isaiah 42:8 and Isaiah 48:11?
·
If the NWT is the most accurate word for
word translation of the Bible, why is the word “son” added to Acts 20:28 even
though the word “son” is not in the Greek text of Acts 20:28?
·
If Christ was created by God and is the
wisdom of God, as taught in Watchtower publications, how is it possible that
God was ever without wisdom? (Proverbs 8:1-4, 12, 22-31)
·
If the Watchtower Organization can trace
its roots all the way back to Christ, can you name one Jehovah’s Witness who
lived before the 19th century?
·
Why does the Watchtower Society withhold
the names of the men on the New World Translation Committee who translated the
Hebrew and Greek texts into English for the New World Translation so that
nobody can see if they had any credentials that qualified them to produce a
Bible translation?
·
Why did Paul make a distinction between a
person’s body and their soul in Acts 20:10?
·
Why did Christ tell the early Christians
they would be persecuted for the sake of His (Jesus’) name instead of the name
Jehovah? (Matthew 24:9; Mark 13:13; Luke 21:12, 17; Acts 9:16)
·
If the human soul is the body, then how
can the soul come out of the body? (Genesis 35:18)
·
Why does the New World Translation put the
name Jehovah in the New Testament even though it does not occur in the Greek
text of the New Testament? No ancient Greek manuscripts of the New Testament
contain the Hebrew name of God. New Testament quotes of the Old Testament are
translations of a Hebrew text into Greek, and under inspiration of God the New
Testament Bible writers rendered the Hebrew name of God as Lord (Gr. Kurios) in
their quotations of the Old Testament. Why? Because of the changeover of the
authority and power of the name of Jehovah to the name of Jesus. (John 5:23;
17:11; Acts 4:12; Philippians 2:9-11; Hebrews 1:4)
·
While chapter five of I Corinthians
outlines limiting association with Christians that persist in gross sins, where
is there an indication of strict shunning or application to family members?
·
Why do Jehovah’s Witnesses avoid the
possibility that “house” in II John 10 refers to a congregation, and that this
passage is dealing with a qualification for church membership and occasion for
church discipline and not who you can accept into your own private home, since
the word “house” often refers to congregation in the New Testament? (Romans
16:5; Colossians 4:15; II Timothy 3:6; Philemon 2) Why is the Watchtower
interpretation of II John 10 only applied to ex-JWs? Do you ever receive non-JW
relatives or friends into your home?
·
Where does the New Testament tell
Christians to shun heathens and tax collectors? (Watchtower publications use
Matthew 18:17 to support Watchtower shunning)
·
Where does the Bible tell you to shun a
friend or relative who conscientiously chooses to leave the Watchtower
Organization?
·
Where does the Bible tell you to shun a
relative or friend who conscientiously chooses to join another denomination?
·
Watchtower publications say that each
creative day of chapters one and two of Genesis is 7,000 years long. How do you
reconcile this teaching with Exodus 20:11?
·
If the Watchtower Society began teaching
that a medical blood transfusion is acceptable for a JW because this does not
violate any Bible standard, would you change your beliefs on this issue? If
yes, then how can you be certain they are teaching the truth now? If no, then
does it ever bother you that if you do not change your beliefs every time the
Watchtower Society changes their teachings you could be considered an apostate
and be disfellowshipped?
·
If the Watchtower Society began teaching
that any incident of rape or child molestation should be reported to the police
as soon as possible even if the victim is the only eyewitness to the crime,
would you agree with that policy? How certain are you that their current
teachings and policies on this are right?
Witnesses For Jesus, Inc. https://www.4witness.org/
AnswerJW.com http://www.answerjw.com/
MM Outreach Inc. http://www.mmoutreachinc.com/
TowerWatch Ministries http://towerwatch.com/
Six Screens of the Watchtower http://www.sixscreensofthewatchtower.com/
For more information:
HOW TO WITNESS TO JEHOVAH'S WITNESSES
Help For Ex-Jehovah's Witnesses
NEW WORLD TRANSLATION OF THE HOLY SCRIPTURES ONLINE