"For whosoever shall
call upon the name of the Lord shall be saved." (Romans 10:13 KJV)
"For 'everyone who calls on the name of Jehovah will be saved.'"
(Romans 10:13 NWT) "For if you publicly declare that 'word in your own
mouth,' that Jesus is Lord, and exercise faith in your heart that God raised
him up from the dead, you will be saved." (Romans 10:9 NWT) "Let it
be known to all of YOU and to all the people of Israel, that in the name of
Jesus Christ the Nazarene', whom YOU impaled but whom God raised up from the
dead, by this one does this man stand here sound in front of YOU. This is 'the
stone that was treated by YOU builders as of no account that has become the
head of the corner.' Furthermore, there is no salvation in anyone else, for
there is not another name under heaven that has been given among men by which
we must get saved." (Acts 4:10-12 NWT)
Although including the
name Jehovah in Romans 10:13 indicates that Jesus is Jehovah when compared to
Romans 10:9, this contradicts the teaching on salvation presented in Romans
10:9 and Acts 4:12. Since the name Jehovah does not occur in any ancient Greek
manuscripts of the New Testament and every ancient Greek manuscript of the New
Testament uses the Greek word Kurios (Lord) in Romans 10:13, what is the basis
for inserting the name Jehovah into Romans 10:13 in the New World Translation?
If God had wanted Romans 10:9-12 to make it clear that Jesus is the
"Lord" being referred to in Romans 10:13 how would He have changed
the wording of this text?
Further reading:
No comments:
Post a Comment
Note: Only a member of this blog may post a comment.