QUESTIONS FOR JEHOVAH'S WITNESSES

 

Here are questions every Jehovah’s Witness should be asked when opportunities arise:

• Is there anything about the Watchtower Organization that you do not like or that you find difficult?

• Do you ever find yourself able to get along with non-JWs easier or better than you can get along with Jehovah’s Witnesses? (Watchtower publications say that true Christians have love among themselves, and that this love is one of the identifying marks of the only true Christian religion, God’s organization.)

• Why are Jehovah’s Witnesses instructed to ask people if they were on the wrong road would they let pride or stubbornness keep them from admitting it while they are told they must never ask this of themselves?

• Does it ever bother you that if you do not change your beliefs to line up with Watchtower teachings each time the Watchtower Society changes their teachings you could be considered an apostate and disfellowshipped?

• Since the truth never changes do you ever wonder if a change in Watchtower teachings or policies means they had the truth and lost or rejected it or were previously teaching a falsehood with which you were forbidden to disagree?

• Has anyone ever become convinced of Watchtower teachings and become a Jehovah’s Witness by just reading the Bible?

• Why is it important for everyone else to question their religion but forbidden for Jehovah’s Witnesses to question theirs?

• Do you ever find it difficult to understand how the Watchtower leadership concluded that any particular Watchtower teaching is based on the clear teachings of Scripture?

• Does the “New Light” always expound or add to the “Old Light,” or does the “New Light” ever completely replace or disprove the “Old Light?”

• Does the Watchtower Society encourage personal study, discernment, and growth, or do they require a child-like dependence?

• What would happen if a JW followed the example of the Bereans and critically examined Watchtower teachings to personally discern if those teachings really are taught in Scripture? (Acts 17:10-11)

• While the Bible certainly does not condemn all use of Christian literature and Bible study helps, and Christian books and magazines (and other materials) can be helpful, where does the Bible indicate that Christians must submit to the infallible views and interpretations of an organization or its publications?

• While Acts 8:30-31 does indicate that people occasionally need help understanding Scripture, where in this passage is there any indication of an organization? Since the Ethiopian eunuch never saw Philip again, where is there any indication that the Ethiopian eunuch had to join or submit to an organization or anyone? Did Philip use the Bible alone to expound upon the meaning of Scripture or did he use additional literature? If the Bible alone was sufficient for Philip and the Ethiopian eunuch, doesn't this indicate that the Bible itself is sufficient for us also? Where in these passages is there any support for the teaching that people must join a particular organization, and submit to the interpretations of that organization? (Watchtower publications use Acts 8:30-31 to say that the Watchtower Society is God's only Bible-interpreting organization and that people cannot understand Scripture without the Watchtower Society.)

• If the Watchtower Governing Body is supposed to be God's "Faithful and Discreet Slave" that guides people in their understanding of Scripture and is God's only channel of truth, then does the Watchtower interpretation of Matthew 24:45-47 mean that for eighteen or nineteen centuries God did not have any true representatives on earth? (Consider Ephesians 4:11-16)

• Do you ever feel that Watchtower leadership (Governing Body or local Elders) is intrusive in matters of personal preference or opinion where no genuine Bible truth, principle, or command is at stake? (I Peter 5:1-3; 4:15; Romans 14:1-13)

• Are Jehovah's Witnesses loved and hated because of their loyalty to Jesus Christ and the word of God or because of teachings and practices peculiar to the Watchtower organization? (1 Timothy 1:3-7)

• Is the Gospel being proclaimed by Jehovah’s Witnesses the same Gospel that was preached by Christ and the Apostles? (The Gospel preached by Christ, the Apostles, and Bible-believing Christians throughout Christian history is the death, burial, and literal resurrection of Christ through which repentant sinners are justified through faith in the person and work of Jesus Christ, and the Gospel being proclaimed by Jehovah's Witnesses is the re-establishment of God’s kingdom commencing with the invisible return of Christ in 1914. -John 3:13-15; Acts 4:15-19; 1 Corinthians 15:1-4; 2 Corinthians 11:3-4; Galatians 1:6-8)

• Why does the Watchtower Society avoid the possibility that Acts 20:20 refers to house-churches, since the early Christians usually met for worship in private homes? (Compare Romans 16:5; Colossians 4:15; 2 Timothy 3:6; Philemon 2)

• Where is there any reference to an organization in 1 Corinthians 1:10, and where in 1 Corinthians 1:10 (or the context thereof) are we told that unity is to be achieved by submitting to an organization? Did the lack of unity among believers at Corinth mean that they were not Christians? (1 Corinthians 1:2, 11-13; Watchtower publications use 1 Corinthians 1:10 to teach the importance of complete conformity to the teachings of the Watchtower Organization and insist that such unity proves that JWs are the only true Christians and that those who do not have such unity are false Christians.)

• Are you aware that the Trinity Doctrine means that God is triune (1x1x1) and not triplex (1+1+1)? Watchtower publications often point out that one plus one plus one is three and not one and insist that the Trinity is a pagan doctrine. Ancient pagans did not worship any trinity, they worshipped triads. A triad is three distinct gods, while the Trinity is one God existing in three persons. The word Trinity is a combination of the word "trine," which means threefold or three times, and the suffix "-ity," which means state, character, or condition. One God eternally existing in three persons is one God and not three Gods. God is characterized by interior personal relationships. (Genesis 1:26-27; 11:6-8; consider 2 Corinthians 13:14; Ephesians 2:18, 22; 1 Peter 1:2) Salvation is an example of this: As the Father, God originates salvation and made provision for salvation; as the Son, God paid the penalty for sin; as the Holy Ghost, God applies salvation. (Whether any of us completely understand or even accept a Bible teaching does not determine if it is the truth. As the Spirit of God reveals truths to us through the word of God, God becomes more majestic to us, not simple. -Psalm 97:2)

• Where in the Bible did Jesus Christ ever deny His deity?

• If John 20:17 means that the Father is God, then why doesn't John 20:28 mean that Jesus is God?

• How do you reconcile John 1:1 in the New World Translation, which says Jesus was a god, with Isaiah 43:10 and Isaiah 44:8?

• If only the Father is God and Jesus is "a god," then just how many "gods" do JWs have? (Isaiah 43:10; 44:8)

• Why isn't the same rule that is applied to John 1:1 in the New World Translation, so that it says Jesus was “a god,” also applied to the other New Testament passages where Theos is used without the definite article? In the 282 New Testament references to God without using the definite article with the word Theos the New World Translation usually renders Theos as "God," such as in Luke 20:38 and John 1:18. Should John 1:18 be changed to say that no man hath seen “a god?” (Incidentally, JWs also point to John 1:18 which says, "No man hath seen God at any time," and people did see Jesus Christ. No man hath seen God as He is, only visions or materializations of God, but there have been those who have seen God manifest in the flesh. -John 4:24; 6:46; 14:9; Philippians 2:6-7; 1Timothy 3:16)

• Do you believe Jesus is “a god?” Do you believe Jesus is a true god? If Jesus is a true god how do you reconcile this with John 17:3? If Jesus is a false god how do you reconcile this with John 1:1? (Watchtower publications say that only the Father is the one true God Jehovah based on John 17:3 and they say that Jesus Christ is “a god” based on the New World Translation’s rendering of John 1:1.)

• If Jesus is not God, how do you reconcile this with Colossians 1:16 and Isaiah 44:24?

• Since there is no Bible verse that says explicitly that the Father is Jehovah should we assume that the Father is not Jehovah? (Watchtower publications deny the deity of Jesus Christ by saying that there is no Bible verse that says explicitly that Jesus is Jehovah.)

• How do you reconcile Isaiah 9:6, where Jesus is called Mighty God, with Isaiah 10:20-21, Isaiah 43:10 & Isaiah 44:6? There is a contradiction in Scripture unless Jesus is Jehovah. (Note that JWs also may try to say it is incorrect for the KJV to usually render the Tetragrammaton, the Hebrew name of God, as “LORD” or “GOD” in upper-case letters and not always render it as “Jehovah.” But note that there is no completely “accurate” way of translating the Tetragrammaton into another language, and whether “LORD,” “GOD,” or “Jehovah” is used the English reader can discern that this is a rendering of the Tetragrammaton.)

• Whose manifestation and whose kingdom is referred to in 2 Timothy 4:1?

• Who is the First and the Last? (Isaiah 44:6; Revelation 1:8, 17-18; 2:8; 22:13, 16) There is contradiction in Scripture unless Jesus is Jehovah.

• Who did Stephen pray to? (Acts 7:59-60)

• For whom did John the Baptist prepare the way? (Isaiah 40:3; Matthew 3:1-3; Luke 1:76; also, compare Malachi 3:1 and Matthew 11:10) There is a contradiction in Scripture unless Jesus is Jehovah.

• Who is Jehovah of Hosts? (Compare Isaiah 8:13,14 with I Peter 2:7-8 and Isaiah 6:3, 8-10 with Acts 28:25-27) There is contradiction in Scripture unless Jesus is Jehovah.

• Who promised the New Covenant? (Jeremiah 31:31-34; Hebrews 10:15-17) There is a contradiction in Scripture unless the Holy Spirit is Jehovah.

• Where does the Bible say that the Holy Spirit is God's active force? Why did Peter say that Ananias had lied to the Holy Spirit when he had lied to God unless the Holy Spirit is God? (Acts 5:3-4) How is it even possible to lie to an impersonal force? (Acts 5:3)

• How do you reconcile the almost exclusive emphasis of JWs on the name Jehovah with Acts 1:8?

• Where in the New Testament did Jesus tell His followers to declare the name Jehovah?

• Where does the New Testament say that declaring the name Jehovah is a mark of true Christians?

• Which name is consistently uplifted in the New Testament (Jesus or Jehovah)?

• Why do you assume that the submission or subjection of Christ to the Father means inferiority? (I Corinthians 15:28; John 14:28) Does the Bible ever indicate that the headship of a husband over his wife means that a woman is naturally inferior to men? Do you believe that compatibility between functional subordination and equality of being is possible? How do you reconcile the subjection of Christ to Joseph and Mary with the claim that Jesus Christ is inferior to the Father by His being subject? (Luke 2:51; John 1:3; I Corinthians 15:28)

• Where does the Bible say that Jesus is Michael the Archangel or that Michael the Archangel is Jesus Christ? (Hebrews 1:5-6)

• Why do you insist that being called “Son” means that Jesus was created? (Hebrews 1:5) The term "son" is used in the Bible to denote or imply almost any kind of descent or succession (consider Exodus 2:10 and Hebrews 1:5,8), and “Son of God” was a messianic title which signified the function of Deliverer. (E.g., Matthew 16:16; Note that the Devil tempted Christ by bringing against Him the popular Jewish conceptions of the Messiah. -Matthew 4:1-11)

• How does being called “firstborn” mean that Jesus was created, since firstborn means pre-eminent or the legal heir? (Colossians 1:15; the nation of Israel was called firstborn even though there were other nations in existence before the nation of Israel was formed and note that King David was called firstborn even though he was the youngest son in his family, and Joseph's son Ephraim is called the firstborn even though Ephraim was born after Manasseh. –Psalm 89:27; Jeremiah 31:9)

• Does the use of the word Arche with Almighty God mean that Almighty God was created? (Revelation 21:6; Watchtower publications use Revelation 3:14 to say that Jesus is a created angel. But the word "beginning" in Revelation 3:14 is the rendering of the Greek word Arche, which means first cause, origin, or source, and is where we get the English word "architect.”)

• Where does the Bible say that Jesus Christ was not bodily resurrected? (Luke 24:36-43; Acts 10:39-41)

• Where does the Bible say that in heaven today Jesus Christ does not have a glorified human body? (Colossians 2:9; 1 Timothy 2:5)

• Where does the Bible say that the return of Christ will not be in visible human form? (Acts 1:9-11) Did Christ ascend into a literal or figurative cloud? (Acts 1:9)

• Can you verify that Jerusalem was destroyed by the Babylonian army in 607 BC and not 586 BC? Does it concern you that the Watchtower calculations making 1914 the year Christ returned are based on a date they cannot verify and a prophecy about Nebuchadnezzar (Nebuchadnezzar’s recovery from lycanthropy) that was fulfilled in Nebuchadnezzar's lifetime? (Daniel 4:16, 30-36)

• How do you reconcile the promise of Matthew 28:20 with the Watchtower teaching that the return of Christ would be invisible and that He returned invisibly in 1914 AD?

• If the Second Coming is past and Christ returned in 1914 AD, why do Jehovah's Witnesses still observe the Memorial service (Lord’s Supper)? Doesn't this contradict the purpose of the Memorial? (1 Corinthians 11:26)

• If Jesus was hung on a single upright pole, a torture stake, and not on a cross then why was more than one nail used to fasten His hands, and why does the Bible say that the written charge was placed over His head and not over His hands? (John 20:25; Matthew 27:37)

• While Ecclesiastes 9:5 & 10 may not prove there is conscious existence after death, do these passages prove that there is no conscious existence after death or could these passages and their context be dealing with the inevitability of physical death? (Hell is a place of unconsciousness and inactivity when it comes to bodily senses and the affairs of this world. -Isaiah 63:16; John 9:4; Revelation 14:13) Do you believe that all will receive the same eternal fate or destiny, whether they are faithful or wicked? (Ecclesiastes 9:2) Does Ecclesiastes 9:5 mean there will be no resurrection after this life for anyone?

• Have you considered the possibility that Ezekiel 18:4 refers to death in the same sense that Adam and Eve died the very day they ate the forbidden fruit? (Genesis 2:17; 5:3-5) JWs use Ezekiel 18:4 (another favourite proof text) to deny the immortality of the human soul. Death means separation: Physical death is the separation of the soul and body. (Genesis 35:18) Spiritual death is separation of man from God. (Romans 5:12, 17; Ephesians 2:1; Colossians 2:13; 1 Peter 4:6)

• How do you explain Matthew 10:28 and other passages that make a distinction between the body and the soul?

• If by "destroy," in Matthew 10:28, Christ meant a termination of existence, then why did He use the Greek word "apollumi?" Christ used the same word apollumi in Luke 5:37 concerning the destruction of wineskins. If God had wanted the Bible to say or indicate that the soul and the body are distinct and that the soul is immortal how would He have changed such passages? (Also, note that while the Bible does say that animals have souls, the Bible does not say or indicate that animals have immortal souls. In the Bible the word soul is sometimes used to denote mere animal or physical life, as Watchtower literature points out, but it usually means the internal, immaterial aspect or ego of man, and the Bible makes a distinction between the body and the soul. Need proof? Simply look up occurrences of the word soul (Hebrew: Nephesh) and pay attention to wording, grammar, and context.)

• In Acts 7:59 was Stephen asking Jesus to take away his bad breath? (Watchtower literature says that the spirit is merely one's breath.)

• If the account of Luke 16:27-31 is a parable and the Rich Man represents false religious leaders and Lazarus represents true Christians, as is taught in Watchtower publications, then who were the Rich Man's five brothers and why did he want Lazarus to witness to them, and why did Jesus portray Abraham as speaking to a man who no longer existed?

• If Luke 16:19-31 is a parable (even though the context gives no indication of this), have you considered that a parable is an example or picture which verifies something, and a symbol is a small representation of a greater reality?

• How can a copy, no matter how exact, be the original? Is a copy of a CD the original CD? Is a copy of a document the original document? If God created an exact duplicate of you today and gave it your exact thoughts, emotions, and memories, would you and your duplicate always have the same thoughts, emotions, and memories, or would you be separate people living separate lives? Would you be willing to die so that your duplicate could continue living your life without you around, since he would really be you and you would still be living and conscious because he would have your thoughts, emotions, and memories, your life pattern? (Watchtower publications deny that physical death is separation of the soul and body, and that resurrection is a reuniting of the soul and body, by teaching that resurrection means that God recreates a body with the same life pattern and memories, an exact copy.)

• Where does the Bible forbid service in the armed forces and where in the Bible is any soldier told to resign from the military?

• Where does the Bible forbid a medical blood transfusion to save a human life? (Romans 4:15)

• Where does the Bible forbid celebrating religious holidays, such as Christmas and Easter? (Romans 14:1, 4-6. Watchtower publications point out that there were pagan holidays on those days. The argument that it would be sinful to celebrate a religious holiday if it is on the same date as a pagan holiday is a convenient way to make a blanket condemnation, as it is difficult, if not impossible, to find a date on the calendar that was never a pagan holiday somewhere; perhaps wedding anniversaries should be forbidden for this reason. If we are going to nit-pick on details, we should forbid weddings rings and wedding cakes as they have pagan origins, and we should forbid calendars, clocks, and watches because the names of the months and the days of the week have pagan origins and the use of timepieces and the division of the day into the hours comes from astrology. The Bible condemns idolatry but not everything pagans happened to do, and it certainly does not condemn setting aside a day unto the Lord.)

• Where does the Bible forbid celebrating birthdays? (Watchtower literature points to two accounts of kings, Herod & Pharaoh, celebrating their birthdays and having someone killed. It must be noted that these ancient kings, dictators, had people killed every day and not just on their birthdays. But note that according to chapter one of The Book of Job, Job and his family celebrated birthdays and had such a good time at this that Job felt compelled to offer sacrifices just in case they might have gone too far in their merrymaking.)

• While the Bible teaches much about the Old Covenant for Jews and the New Covenant for Christians, where does the Bible teach a third arrangement of a "great crowd" of "other sheep" who do not have a heavenly hope? (John 17:20, 24; 1 Peter 1:3-4)

• If Christ had wanted to mean that the "other sheep" are gentile converts, how would He have changed the wording of John 10:16 and the context thereof?

• The New World Translation is consistent in the punctuation in the dozens of other New Testament passages where Jesus uses the expression "Truly I tell you" or "Truly I say to you" ("tell" and "say" are the same word in the Greek text); so why does the New World Translation make an exception in Luke 23:43 and put a comma after the word “today.” If I were to vocally and personally say something to you right now it would be obvious that I would be speaking "today;" where does the context of Luke 23:43 indicate any logical reason that Jesus would feel the need to verbalize the obvious fact that He was speaking those words on that very day?

• Did you know that the Watchtower Society originally taught that Charles Taze Russell was God’s “faithful and discreet slave” of Matthew 24:45-46, and how do you explain the Watchtower Society’s change of position on this fundamental issue?

• If the Jehovah’s Witnesses are the only true witnesses for God does this mean that God did not have a witness for over eighteen centuries, since the Jehovah’s Witnesses did not exist as an organization until the nineteenth century?

• According to Acts 2:32, Acts 3:15, Acts 4:33, and Acts 13:30-31, were the early Christians witnesses of Jehovah or of Jesus Christ?

• If the “faithful and discreet slave” of Matthew 24:45-46 that guides people in their understanding of Scripture did not exist until modern times does this mean that God did not care if anyone understood the Bible for all the previous centuries?

• How did anyone understand the Bible during the centuries prior to the existence of the Watchtower Society? What kind of God gives His people a Bible without any means of understanding it?

• If Christ deliberately bypassed the religious elite and highly educated to reveal truths to ordinary people, and the Apostles commended and encouraged personal study and discernment, why should we assume that God intended for people of our generation to receive (without question or doubt) the interpretations of people claiming to have some special key to understanding Scripture that ordinary people don't have? If the Bible is the complete Word of God and the final authority, why should we assume that God expects people of our generation to interpret Bible passages in relation to Christian literature or a theologian instead of interpreting Bible passages in relation to context and the whole Bible? Scripture itself is the key to the interpretation of Scripture. While there definitely is need for ministers and Christian literature, and there are difficulties in the Bible, for the most part the Bible is self-interpreting and self-explanatory when one is familiar with its contents. (Psalm 119:104,105,130; Proverbs 2:3-6; Acts 20:28; Ephesians 4:11-12; 2 Timothy 2:15; 3:16-17)

• Have you ever taken time to personally look up all the Bible passages cited or referred to in a Watchtower publication to examine the relationship of each Bible passage to its context and see for yourself if they are rightly dividing God’s Word or misapplying and misusing Scripture texts?

• Does Romans 14:1-12 indicate that it is acceptable for Christians to differ on some religious issues, especially conscientious differences of opinion?

• According to John 5:39-40 is Bible knowledge sufficient for salvation, and what is required for salvation according to this passage?

• Where in the Bible did anyone record their time in witnessing on paper or have record cards of activity assigned as gauges or measurements of spirituality? "Jehovah's Witnesses believe that the entire Bible is the inspired Word of God, and instead of adhering to a creed based on human tradition, they hold to the Bible as the standard for all their beliefs." (Reasoning From The Scriptures, p.199) "Because Jehovah's Witnesses base all of their beliefs, their standards for conduct, and organizational procedures on the Bible, their faith in the Bible itself as God's Word gives them the conviction that what they have is indeed the truth. So their position is not egotistical but demonstrates their confidence that the Bible is the right standard against which to measure one's religion." (Reasoning From The Scriptures, p.203-204)

• Where does the Bible say that a prophet is no longer a false prophet if he admits he made a mistake after a prophecy fails? (Consider Deuteronomy 18:20-22; Watchtower publications say the Watchtower Society is Jehovah’s prophet.)

• Do the many failed predictions of the Watchtower Society ever make you question if they really are God’s channel of truth?

• Where does the Bible say that a person must belong to an organization that did not exist until the 19th century to survive Armageddon?

• How do you reconcile the Watchtower teaching that Abraham, Isaac, and Jacob will not reside with Christ in His heavenly kingdom with Matthew 8:11?

• How could Christ preach to the “spirits in prison” who were alive during the days of Noah, and how was the gospel preached to “them that are dead,” if there is no consciousness after death? (1 Peter 3:18-20; 4:5-6)

• If “the spirits in prison” in I Peter 3:19 refers to demons and not people who died before the resurrection of Christ, then why did Jesus preach to demons?

• Why did the Holy Spirit speak directly and refer to Himself as “me” and “I” in Acts 13:2?

• If Christ is not God, how do you reconcile John 17:5 with Isaiah 42:8 and Isaiah 48:11?

• If the NWT is the most accurate word for word translation of the Bible, why is the word “son” added to Acts 20:28 even though the word “son” is not in the Greek text of Acts 20:28?

• If Christ was created by God and is the wisdom of God, as taught in Watchtower publications, how is it possible that God was ever without wisdom? (Proverbs 8:1-4, 12, 22-31)

• If the Watchtower Organization can trace its roots all the way back to Christ, can you name one Jehovah’s Witness who lived before the 19th century?

• Why does the Watchtower Society withhold the names of the men on the New World Translation Committee who translated the Hebrew and Greek texts into English for the New World Translation so that nobody can see if they had any credentials that qualified them to produce a Bible translation?

• Why did Paul make a distinction between a person’s body and their soul in Acts 20:10?

• Why did Christ tell the early Christians they would be persecuted for the sake of His (Jesus’) name instead of the name Jehovah? (Matthew 24:9; Mark 13:13; Luke 21:12, 17; Acts 9:16)

• If the human soul is the body, then how can the soul come out of the body? (Genesis 35:18)

• Why does the New World Translation put the name Jehovah in the New Testament even though it does not occur in the Greek text of the New Testament? No ancient Greek manuscripts of the New Testament contain the Hebrew name of God. New Testament quotes of the Old Testament are translations of a Hebrew text into Greek, and under inspiration of God the New Testament Bible writers rendered the Hebrew name of God as Lord (Gr. Kurios) in their quotations of the Old Testament. Why? Because of the changeover of the authority and power of the name of Jehovah to the name of Jesus. (John 5:23; 17:11; Acts 4:12; Philippians 2:9-11; Hebrews 1:4)

• While chapter five of I Corinthians outlines limiting association with Christians that persist in gross sins, where is there an indication of strict shunning or application to family members?

• Why do Jehovah’s Witnesses avoid the possibility that “house” in II John 10 refers to a congregation, and that this passage is dealing with a qualification for church membership and occasion for church discipline and not who you can accept into your own private home, since the word “house” often refers to congregation in the New Testament? (Romans 16:5; Colossians 4:15; 2 Timothy 3:6; Philemon 2) Why is the Watchtower interpretation of II John 10 only applied to ex-JWs? Do you ever receive non-JW relatives or friends into your home?

• Where does the New Testament tell Christians to shun heathens and tax collectors? (Watchtower publications use Matthew 18:17 to support Watchtower shunning)

• Where does the Bible tell you to shun a friend or relative who conscientiously chooses to leave the Watchtower Organization?

• Where does the Bible tell you to shun a relative or friend who conscientiously chooses to join another denomination?

• Watchtower publications say that each creative day of chapters one and two of Genesis is 7,000 years long. How do you reconcile this teaching with Exodus 20:11?

• If the Watchtower Society began teaching that a medical blood transfusion is acceptable for a JW because this does not violate any Bible standard, would you change your beliefs on this issue? If yes, then how can you be certain they are teaching the truth now? If no, then does it ever bother you that if you do not change your beliefs every time the Watchtower Society changes their teachings you could be considered an apostate and be disfellowshipped?

• If the Watchtower Society began teaching that any incident of rape or child molestation should be reported to the police as soon as possible even if the victim is the only eyewitness to the crime, would you agree with that policy? How certain are you that their current teachings and policies on this are right?