In his book, "The United Pentecostal Church and
the Evangelical Movement," J. L. Hall (a UPC preacher) made some good
points about the possibility of fellowship and cooperation between the UPC and
Evangelical Trinitarian organizations. It is true that Oneness Pentecostals and
Evangelical Trinitarians share numerous doctrines and concerns in common. In
our relationships with Christians who hold different beliefs and convictions it
is often better to light a candle than to curse the darkness, and we should recognize
that any knowledge that any of us has is incomplete and the Holy Bible is the
final authority. (I Corinthians 8:2; 2 Timothy 3:16-17)
While Evangelical Trinitarians and Oneness
Pentecostals do share some fundamental beliefs in common and there may be valid
reasons for not identifying the UPC as a cult, cultic policies in the UPC are
cause for concern. It is not denying anyone’s sincerity or salvation to be wary
of unscriptural doctrines and practices. In addition to the numerous points
made by J. L. Hall, these also should be considered:
• The fellowship and cooperation between the UPC and
Evangelical Trinitarian organizations that is proposed would require
Evangelical Trinitarians to compromise doctrines on soteriology and theology,
and the history of the United Pentecostal Church in the Twentieth Century
indicates that such compromise is most likely to be completely one-sided: In
1916 Pentecostals who insisted that Acts 2:38 gives the baptismal formula left
the Assemblies of God to form other groups. In 1936 the PAJC (Pentecostal Assemblies
of Jesus Christ) ratified a five-point agenda with a view toward merger with
the PCI (Pentecostal Church, Incorporated), and this was rejected by the PCI
because of the proposal that the teaching that water baptism and
tongues-talking constitute the new birth be accepted as one of the fundamental
doctrines. At The Merger of the PCI and the PAJC in 1945 the wording of the
Fundamental Doctrine of the UPC (United Pentecostal Church) was chosen because
of the different opinions about whether water baptism and tongues-talking are
causes or consequences of the new birth, and without the unity clause, that
brethren "shall endeavor to keep the unity of the Spirit" and
"shall not contend for their different views to the disunity of the
body," there would have been no merger. John 3:5=Acts 2:38 or
Acts-2:38-or-Hell has never been the universal opinion of Oneness Pentecostals,
and current policies of the UPC on soteriology violate the agreement of The
Merger in 1945. It should also be noted that not all early Oneness Pentecostal
leaders adopted the understanding of the Godhead that is being required in the
UPC today, and many Oneness Pentecostals (Howard A. Goss, Frank Ewart, Andrew
Urshan, etc.) taught the triunity of God. Some, such as the first General
Superintendent of the UPC Howard A. Goss, insisted that belief in a Trinity was
acceptable and made a distinction between tritheism and Trinitarianism. The
doctrinal statement of the PCI on the Godhead described God as triune, a
Trinity.
• The theory pushed by Oneness Pentecostals that a
doctrine is proven to be a divine truth by a special revelation without
scriptural support is a form of Gnosticism and not Christian truth. If you
received a "revelation" that you cannot verify with Scripture, you
should seriously question which "god" gave you that
"revelation." God reveals Himself to man through His Word and
Scripture itself, comparing Scripture with Scripture, is the key to the
interpretation of Scripture (I Corinthians 2:13; II Timothy 2:15), and whether
any of us completely understand or accept a Bible truth does not determine if
it true. (Psalm 3:5-7; Isaiah 55:8-9)
• Matthew 28:19 is the only baptismal command in the
Bible addressed to baptizers, and all baptismal commands in the Book of Acts
are addressed to baptismal candidates. If God had wanted Acts 2:38 to convey
that converts are to be baptized for the sake of Jesus Christ or as a
submission to the authority of Jesus Christ ("In the name of Jesus
Christ") without specifying the words to be spoken by the baptizer, how
would He have changed the wording of Acts 2:38? (Consider Colossians 3:17)
• It is wrong to say that all trinitarians are guilty
of tritheism or of denying the complete deity of Jesus Christ (as many Oneness
Pentecostals contend). It is incorrect to say that the Trinity is a pagan
concept; ancient pagans did not worship any trinity, they worshipped triads,
and a triad is three gods while the Trinity is one God existing in three
persons. The word Trinity is a combination of the word "trine," which
means threefold or three times, and the suffix "-ity," which means
state, character, or condition. In other words, God is not triplex (1+1+1), God
is triune (1x1x1). (Matthew 28:19; II Corinthians 13:14; I John 5:7) There is
one God, and that one God is characterized by interior personal relationships.
(Genesis 1:26-27; 11:6-8) Since God our Creator is so much higher than us, we
should not be surprised to find difficulties in understanding His nature.
(Psalm 97:2)
• If God had wanted to convey that the Son of God is
divine, how would He have changed the wording of John 5:18 and Hebrews 1:8?
"Therefore the Jews sought the more to kill him, because he not only had
broken the sabbath, but said also that God was his Father, making himself equal
with God." (John 5:18) "But unto the Son he saith, Thy throne, O God,
is for ever and ever: a sceptre of righteousness is the sceptre of thy
kingdom." (Hebrews 1:8)
• If Jesus had wanted to convey a distinction between
Himself and the Father and the Holy Ghost how would He have changed the wording
of John 14:23, 24, and 26? "Jesus answered and said unto him, If a man
love me, he will keep my words: and my Father will love him, and we will come
unto him, and make our abode with him. He that loveth me not keepeth not my
sayings: and the word which ye hear is not mine, but the Father's which sent
me." (John 14:23-24) "But the Comforter, which is the Holy Ghost,
whom the Father will send in my name, he shall teach you all things, and bring
all things to your remembrance, whatsoever I have said unto you." (John
14:26)
• If Jesus had wanted to convey that He and the Father
have separate wills how would He have changed the wording of Matthew 26:39?
"And he went a little further, and fell on his face, and prayed, saying, O
my Father, if it be possible, let this cup pass from me: nevertheless not as I
will, but as thou wilt." (Matthew 26:39)
• If God had wanted to convey that Jesus Christ was
completely God and not just part God how would He have changed the wording of
Colossians 1:19? "For it pleased the Father that in him should all fulness
dwell." (Colossians 1:19)
• If God had wanted to convey that Jesus' human nature
was not separated from His divine nature how would He have changed the wording
of Mark 2:5-12? "When Jesus saw their faith, he said unto the sick of the
palsy, Son, thy sins be forgiven thee. But there were certain of the scribes
sitting there, and reasoning in their hearts, Why doth this man thus speak
blasphemies? who can forgive sins but God only? And immediately when Jesus
perceived in his spirit that they so reasoned within themselves, he said unto
them, Why reason ye these things in your hearts? Whether is it easier to say to
the sick of the palsy, Thy sins be forgiven thee; or to say, Arise, and take up
thy bed, and walk? But that ye may know that the Son of man hath power on earth
to forgive sins, (he saith to the sick of the palsy,) I say unto thee, Arise,
and take up thy bed, and go thy way into thine house. And immediately he arose,
took up the bed, and went forth before them all; insomuch that they were all
amazed, and glorified God, saying, We never saw it on this fashion." (Mark
2:5-12)
• If God had wanted to convey that the Father and the
Lamb are distinct persons how would He have changed the wording of Revelation
5:1-9? "And I saw in the right hand of him that sat on the throne a book
written within and on the backside, sealed with seven seals. And I saw a strong
angel proclaiming with a loud voice, Who is worthy to open the book, and to
loose the seals thereof? And no man in heaven, nor in earth, neither under the
earth, was able to open the book, neither to look thereon. And I wept much,
because no man was found worthy to open and to read the book, neither to look
thereon. And one of the elders saith unto me, Weep not: behold, the Lion of the
tribe of Juda, the Root of David, hath prevailed to open the book, and to loose
the seven seals thereof. And I beheld, and, lo, in the midst of the throne and
of the four beasts, and in the midst of the elders, stood a Lamb as it had been
slain, having seven horns and seven eyes, which are the seven Spirits of God
sent forth into all the earth. And he came and took the book out of the right
hand of him that sat upon the throne. And when he had taken the book, the four
beasts and four and twenty elders fell down before the Lamb, having every one
of them harps, and golden vials full of odours, which are the prayers of
saints. And they sung a new song, saying, Thou art worthy to take the book, and
to open the seals thereof: for thou wast slain, and hast redeemed us to God by
thy blood out of every kindred, and tongue, and people, and nation." (Revelation
5:1-9)
• In Acts 2:38, why is the command to repent given in
the second person plural while the command to be baptized is given in the third
person singular? If God had wanted the baptismal command to be directed to
people who have already repented and been forgiven how would He have changed
the wording of Acts 2:38 and Acts 3:19? "Then Peter said unto them,
Repent, and be baptized every one of you in the name of Jesus Christ for the
remission of sins, and ye shall receive the gift of the Holy Ghost." (Acts
2:38) "Repent ye therefore, and be converted, that your sins may be
blotted out, when the times of refreshing shall come from the presence of the
Lord." (Acts 3:19) If Mark 16:16 were changed to read "He that
believeth and pays tithes (or other Christian activity) shall be saved, but he
that believeth not shall be damned," would you assume that tithing (or
whatever Christian activity is inserted) is a prerequisite for salvation?
• B-o-r-n does not spell baptized. John 3:5 was a
response to the supposition that the new birth could be wrought through
physical means, such as childbirth. (John 3:4) There are always cases of people
assuming that they are saved because they were born and raised in a certain
religion or denomination or assuming that they were saved through rituals and
ceremonies, and this was true of many when Christ walked the earth. (John
1:12-13; 3:1-6) The new birth is a personal experience with Jesus Christ. (John
3:5-16; Titus 3:5-7)
• “Jesus answered and said unto him, Art thou a master
of Israel, and knowest not these things?” (John 3:10) Christ was teaching
something Nicodemus should have already known through familiarity with Old
Testament teachings about the Holy Spirit’s work of supernatural change in the
lives of people in the new covenant age. (Ezekiel 11 & 36, Jeremiah 31,
etc.)
• New Testament passages used to prove baptismal
regeneration, salvation by water baptism, refer to Spirit baptism. If God had
wanted Mark 16:16, Romans 6:3-5, I Corinthians 12:13, Galatians 3:27, &
Colossians 2:12 to refer to baptism into the body of Christ, which occurs when
a lost and repentant sinner puts his faith in Jesus Christ for salvation and
can only be done by the Holy Ghost, how would He have changed the wording of
these passages? “He that believeth and is baptized shall be saved; but he that
believeth not shall be damned.” (Mark 16:16) "Know ye not, that so many of
us as were baptized into Jesus Christ were baptized into his death? Therefore
we are buried with him by baptism into death: that like as Christ was raised up
from the dead by the glory of the Father, even so we also should walk in
newness of life. For if we have been planted together in the likeness of his
death, we shall be also in the likeness of his resurrection." (Romans
6:3-5) "For by one Spirit are we all baptized into one body, whether we be
Jews or Gentiles, whether we be bond or free; and have been all made to drink
into one Spirit." (I Corinthians 12:13) "For as many of you as have
been baptized into Christ have put on Christ." (Galatians 3:27)
"Buried with him in baptism, wherein also ye are risen with him through
the faith of the operation of God, who hath raised him from the dead."
(Colossians 2:12)
• 1 Peter 3:21 says that water baptism satisfies the
demands of a good conscience and is figurative (symbolic/declarative) of
salvation. How can a figure be that of which it is a figure? If God had wanted
to convey that Noah's safety during the deluge was the outward confirmation of
the grace he had already received years earlier (Genesis 6:8) and that, in the
same way, Christian baptism is the outward confirmation of the grace a
Christian had already received when he trusted Jesus Christ as Savior how would
God have changed the wording of I Peter 2:20-21? "Which sometime were
disobedient, when once the longsuffering of God waited in the days of Noah,
while the ark was a preparing, wherein few, that is, eight souls were saved by
water. The like figure whereunto even baptism doth also now save us (not the
putting away of the filth of the flesh, but the answer of a good conscience
toward God,) by the resurrection of Jesus Christ." (I Peter 3:20-21)
• Faith and repentance are inseparable; saving faith
is the turning to Jesus Christ (God in the flesh) for salvation, and repentance
is the turning from sin to God. (Acts 20:21) The Greek words rendered
"and" (Kai) and "for" (Eis) in Acts 2:38 have many possible
meanings, so whether Acts 2:38 means that repentance or water baptism is the
effective agent for the remission of sins depends on the immediate context and
the context of New Testament teachings, which indicate that repentance is the
effective agent for the remission of sins. (Consider Luke 24:47; Acts 2:21;
3:19; 17:30-31; 11:18; 26:20; I Corinthians 1:17)
• Wrong conclusions are inevitable when it is assumed
that every spiritual experience mentioned in the New Testament, or that every
blessing of the blood atonement, is a prerequisite for salvation. It should be
noted that the Bible teaches a distinction between various works and ministries
of the Holy Ghost, and not all blessings of the blood atonement are
prerequisites for salvation. Are all the signs mentioned in Mark 16:17-18
expected to accompany the conversion of every Christian? Is there any solid teaching
in the Book of Acts that "tongues" must accompany the conversion of
every Christian or is prerequisite for salvation? Is there any solid teaching
in I Corinthians that "tongues" must accompany the conversion of
every Christian or is prerequisite for salvation? Is there any solid teaching
in the whole Bible that "tongues" must accompany the conversion of
every Christian or is prerequisite for salvation? Is there any solid teaching
in the Bible that speaking in tongues is expected of every born-again believer?
(1 Corinthians 12:29)
• “And as I began to speak, the Holy Ghost fell on
them, as on us at the beginning.” (Acts 11:15) “And as I began to speak, the
Holy Ghost fell on them” is an obvious reference to the event of Acts 10:44-46,
and “as on us at the beginning” is an obvious reference to the infilling at
Pentecost in Acts 2:1-4. The words, “as on us at the beginning,” imply other
occasions of Christians being Spirit-filled without speaking in tongues. (Acts
4:31; Acts 8:4-18 & 1 Corinthians 12:29-31)
• The purpose of Spirit infilling is to make
Christians effective witnesses. (Acts 1:8; consider Acts 4:31) The modern
emphasis on tongues-talking can indirectly encourage unregenerate professors of
faith to assume that they are saved and Spirit-filled merely because they are
able to make a noise (e.g., continually repeating the same syllable or set of
syllables, etc.).
• An essential to a Christian being and staying
Spirit-filled is being in the word of God. “Be … understanding what the will of
the Lord is” precedes “be filled with the Spirit” (Ephesians 5:17-18; consider
Colossians 3:16), we know God’s will primarily through the Scriptures (Psalm
119:104-105, 130; 2 Timothy 3:16-17), and to be filled with something means to
be under its control. (Luke 6:11; Acts 5:17; 13:45; Ephesians 5:18) Following
the command to be filled with the Spirit, the effects of the fulness of the
Spirit outlined in Ephesians do not include tongues-talking. (Ephesians
5:18-21)
• Ananias addressed Paul (then Saul) as brother before
Paul was baptized in water. (Acts 9:17-18; 22:12-16.) Note that Acts 22:16 does
not say that spiritual cleansing is a result of water baptism or of the
baptizer calling on the name of the Lord. "And now why tarriest thou?
arise, and be baptized, and wash away thy sins, calling on the name of the
Lord." (Acts 22:16) If God had wanted to convey that the washing away of
sins is the result of the convert calling on the name of the Lord how would He
have changed the wording of Acts 22:16?
• The Ephesian believers were called disciples before
they spake in tongues, and Paul implied that if they had a Christian baptism
they would have heard of the Holy Ghost. (Acts 19:1-6; consider the wording of
Matthew 28:19)
• If water baptism is part of salvation and not after
salvation, this puts the baptizer in the position of priesthood.
• Acts 2:38 is a truth, but Jesus is the truth. (John
14:6) Salvation is a personal experience with Jesus Christ and is through the
finished work of Calvary, not the blood of Christ and additional supplements.
(John 3:13-16; Acts 2:21; 10:43; Romans 5:1-2, 8-11; Ephesians 2:8-9; Titus
3:5-7; I Peter 1:3; I John 5:20)
• The main hindrance to fellowship and cooperation
between Oneness Pentecostals and Evangelical Trinitarians is the Us-Only pride
and We-Versus-They complex of Oneness Pentecostals. (Mark 9:38-42; Philippians
1:18)
