Does The Bible Promote Sexual Abuse?

 

“So you believe we get our morals from the Bible? Tell me again how forcing a woman to marry her rapist is moral.” -Richard Dawkins

 

Did the Old Testament condone sexual abuse as Bible critics claim? Some claim that the Mosaic Law condoned sexual abuse by not including a severe penalty for raping an unmarried and unengaged woman, and that the penalty for raping an unmarried and unengaged woman was marriage to the victim, according to their interpretation of Deuteronomy 22:28-29. Is this correct? No, the purpose of Deuteronomy 22:28-29 was to protect women and discourage sexual abuse. The wording of Deuteronomy 22:28 makes it clear that the crime referred to is consensual fornication and not rape. (Compare Exodus 22:16-17) Take another look at Deuteronomy 22:23-27, the verses preceding Deuteronomy 22:28, and note the wording of Deuteronomy 22:23, that there is no mention or implication of force or unwillingness which would indicate to witnesses that the woman needed protection. Deuteronomy 22:23 describes a meeting or encounter in a populated area for consensual fornication. (Compare Deuteronomy 22:25) The Mosaic Law required a trial for crimes (the local court was situated at the city gate), and a woman guilty of adultery might try to protect herself by claiming it was rape. (Deuteronomy 22:24; 16:18-20) It was not necessary to give an explicit penalty for rape because the context makes it clear that the crime of rape carried the same penalty as premeditated murder. (Deuteronomy 22:26)