WATCHTOWER TEACHINGS REFUTED

 

 

THE TRUTH?

          In a Bible-believing evangelical church it is not unusual to observe that 5% to 20% of the regular active members are the walk-the-walk variety of Christians while the rest are the talk-the-talk variety. On the one hand this is cause for concern while on the other hand this is a reminder that genuine born-again believers are human and a reminder of Bible warnings about false professors and heretics and does not necessarily mean that a particular church is preaching or practicing false religion. If a religious group teaches salvation by works and practices shunning it should be no surprise to observe that most of the membership appear to work more and put forth a greater effort to maintain an appearance. Watchtower publications lump all other professed Christians in the same category and focus attention on inconvenient or unpleasant realities that are present in any religious group or denomination (including the Watchtower Organization) and compare this to the Watchtower facade and the supposedly superior insights of the Watchtower Society and insist that the Watchtower Organization stands out as the truth, the only true Christian religion, compared to the churches of Christendom. Jehovah’s Witnesses thus learn to view the Watchtower Organization through rose-coloured glasses.

          “Woe unto you, scribes and Pharisees, hypocrites! for ye compass sea and land to make one proselyte, and when he is made, ye make him twofold more the child of hell than yourselves.” (Matthew 23:15) While the Jehovah’s Witnesses are right to emphasize proselytizing, they have the wrong message. The Gospel being proclaimed by Jehovah's Witnesses is the re-establishment of God’s kingdom commencing with the invisible return of Christ in 1914. The Gospel preached by Christ, the Apostles, and Bible-believing Christians throughout Christian history is the death, burial, and literal resurrection of Jesus Christ through which sinners are justified (declared righteous) through faith in the person and work of Jesus Christ when they repent. (John 3:13-15; Acts 4:15-19; I Corinthians 15:1-4) Salvation is a personal relationship with Jesus Christ and is through the finished work of Calvary, not the shed blood of Jesus Christ and additional supplements. (John 3:13-16; Acts 2:21; 10:43; Romans 4:5; 5:1-2,8-11; 1 Corinthians 15:1-4; 2 Corinthians 5:17-18; Ephesians 2:8-9; Titus 3:5-6; Hebrews 5:9; 1 Peter 1:3; 1 John 5:20)

          “For they being ignorant of God’s righteousness, and going about to establish their own righteousness, have not submitted themselves unto the righteousness of God.” (Romans 10:2) Like the unbelieving Jews of old, Jehovah’s Witnesses replace true faith and genuine spirituality with self-righteousness. Self-righteousness makes someone insist that he is just as good as, or better than, those people in the churches instead of recognizing that he is a sinner that cannot save himself and needs the grace of God just as much as those people in the churches. “Most men will proclaim every one his own goodness: but a faithful man who can find?” (Proverbs 20:6) “There is a generation that are pure in their own eyes, and yet is not washed from their filthiness.” (Proverbs 30:12) “For we dare not make ourselves of the number, or compare ourselves with some that commend themselves: but they measuring themselves by themselves, and comparing themselves among themselves, are not wise.” (2 Corinthians 10:12)

          Jehovah's Witnesses believe they have the only true Christian religion and are part of God's organization and that they must be faithful to the Watchtower Organization to earn salvation. Watchtower publications say that certain identifying marks taught in Scripture verify that they are God’s organization, but the Watchtower Organization does not measure up to the marks that JWs say characterize true Christianity. Let’s consider just a couple of those marks.

          "The main identifying quality by which true Christians are recognized is the outstanding love they have toward one another." (Aid To Bible Understanding, p.317) John 13:35 is a favorite JW proof text in this. They insist that love among themselves proves they are the only true Christian religion. But here are good questions for Jehovah’s Witnesses: Do you ever have difficulty getting along with other Jehovah’s Witnesses, and do you ever find it easier to get along with non-JWs? (Don’t insist on an immediate response. Encourage them to think about this seriously and honestly.) If my circle of Christian friends and I get along with each other like family, does that mean we have the only true Christian religion?

          Watchtower publications use 1 Corinthians 1:10 to teach the importance of complete conformity to the teachings of the Watchtower Organization and insist that such unity proves that JWs are the only true Christians and that those who do not have such unity are false Christians. Did the lack of unity among believers at Corinth mean that they were not Christians? (1 Corinthians 1:2, 11-13) Where is there any reference to an organization in 1 Corinthians 1:10, and where in 1 Corinthians 1:10 (or the context thereof) are we told that unity is to be achieved by submission to a group of men and not a shared union with Christ?

          Now let's look at another so-called identifying mark: "Jehovah's Witnesses believe that the entire Bible is the inspired Word of God, and instead of adhering to a creed based on human tradition, they hold to the Bible as the standard for all their beliefs." (Reasoning From The Scriptures, p.199) Also: "Because Jehovah's Witnesses base all of their beliefs, their standards for conduct, and organizational procedures on the Bible, their faith in the Bible itself as God's Word gives them the conviction that what they have is indeed the truth. So their position is not egotistical but demonstrates their confidence that the Bible is the right standard against which to measure one's religion." (Reasoning From The Scriptures, p.203-204) Here are a few questions for Jehovah’s Witnesses: Does Watchtower leadership encourage personal study, discernment, and growth, or do they require a child-like dependence? What would happen if a JW followed the example of the Bereans and critically examined Watchtower teachings to personally discern if Watchtower teachings really are taught in Scripture? (Acts 17:10-11)

          Jehovah’s Witnesses believe they "hold to the Bible as the standard for all their beliefs” because in their indoctrination a subtle switch was made from respect for the Holy Bible as the final authority to respect for the Watchtower Society as God’s channel of truth. In their studies, meetings, and literature attention is subtly drawn away from the importance and authority of Scripture and focused on Watchtower publications and teachings, and the superiority of Watchtower insights over other religious groups is emphasized, so that the Watchtower Society becomes their final authority, and the Bible becomes a tool for supporting Watchtower teachings. Jehovah’s Witnesses are taught that doubting or questioning Watchtower teachings is sinful and a threat to salvation and warned against reading or listening to anything critical of the Watchtower Organization.

          If you believe Jehovah’s Witnesses hold to the Bible as the standard for all their beliefs try applying questions like these to specific Watchtower teachings: Have you personally studied to learn what the Bible clearly says? (Psalm 119:130; Proverbs 2:3-6; Acts 17:11; 1 Thessalonians 5:21; 2 Timothy 3:16) How important is this in relation to other matters and what Bible truths and principles or standards apply? (Matthew 23:24; Romans 14; 1 Timothy 1:5-7) Was this true in the distant past and will this be true in the distant future? (Psalm 33:11; Proverbs 19:21; Ecclesiastes 1:9-10) Can you verify this with scripture? (Psalm 33:10; Romans 12:2; 1 Corinthians 1:20; 2:5; Colossians 1:9; 2:8) Have you considered the relationship of Bible proof texts to their immediate contexts and the whole Bible? (2 timothy 2:15; 2 Peter 3:16. Have you ever taken time to personally look up all the Bible passages cited or referred to in a Watchtower publication to examine the relationship of each Bible passage to its context and see for yourself if they are rightly dividing God’s Word or misapplying and misusing Scripture texts?)

          JWs interpret Matthew 24:45-47 (which is a parable, not a prophecy) to mean that Watchtower leadership is the sole channel of God's truth. There was a time when Watchtower publications taught that Charles Taze Russel is the "Faithful and Discreet Slave" ("Faithful and Wise Servant," KJV) of Matthew 24:45-47. For a long time, Watchtower publications said that the "Faithful and Discreet Slave" is the remnant of the anointed class of Jehovah's Witnesses and are represented by the Watchtower Governing Body. Watchtower publications now say that the Watchtower Governing Body is God's "Faithful and Discreet Slave" that guides people in their understanding of Scripture and is God's only channel of truth. But the Watchtower interpretation of Matthew 24:45-47 would mean that for eighteen or nineteen centuries God did not have any true representatives on earth. How did anyone understand the Bible during the centuries prior to the existence of the Watchtower Society? What kind of God gives His people a Bible without any means of understanding it?

          Watchtower publications use Acts 8:30-31 to say that the Watchtower Society is God's only Bible-interpreting organization and that people cannot understand Scripture without the Watchtower Society. While the Bible certainly does not condemn the use of Christian literature and Bible study helps, and Christian books and magazines (and other materials) can be helpful, where does the Bible indicate that Christians must submit to the infallible views and interpretations of an organization or its publications? While Acts 8:30-31 does indicate that people occasionally need help understanding Scripture, where in this passage or the context is there any indication of an organization? Since the Ethiopian eunuch never saw Philip again, where is there any indication that the Ethiopian eunuch had to join or submit to an organization or anyone? Did Philip use the Bible alone to expound upon the meaning of Scripture, or did he use additional literature? If the Bible alone was sufficient for Philip and the Ethiopian eunuch, doesn't this indicate that the Bible itself is sufficient for us also? Scripture itself is the key to the interpretation of Scripture, and while there is need for ministers, teachers, and Christian books, and there are difficulties in the Bible, for the most part the Bible is self-interpreting and self-explanatory when one is familiar with its contents. (Psalm 119:104-105, 130; Proverbs 2:3-6; 2 Timothy 2:15; 3:16-17)

          When Christ walked the earth, he deliberately bypassed the religious elite and highly educated professed Bible-believers to reveal truths to ordinary people, and the Apostles commended and encouraged personal growth, study, and discernment. The Bible was written to be read and understood by ordinary people and God's truth is not hidden from everyone except for a few clever individuals. The Holy Bible is the final authority, and the truth can withstand questions and critical analysis. (Psalm 119:130; Acts 17:11; 1 Thessalonians 5:21; 2 Timothy 2:15; 3:16-17) So why should we assume that God intended for us to accept the teachings of people claiming to have some special key to understanding Scripture without personal study and discernment to verify their teachings?

          Watchtower publications use John 17:3 to prove the necessity of the Watchtower Society’s Bible study. “This means everlasting life, their taking in knowledge of you, the only true God, and of the one whom you sent forth, Jesus Christ.” (John 17:3NWT) “And this is life eternal, that they might know thee the only true God, and Jesus Christ, whom thou hast sent.” (John 17:3 KJV) A look at the literal rendering of the Greek text of John 17:3 shows that the Watchtower Society has mistranslated John 17:3 in their New World Translation. The Greek word for “know” used in this context indicates a personal relationship with God through Jesus Christ and not just a general knowledge of the Bible, and this harmonizes with other Scriptures that teach that general knowledge of the Bible is insufficient for salvation. For example, is knowledge of Scripture sufficient for salvation according to the words of Christ in John 5:39-40? “Search the scriptures; for in them ye think ye have eternal life: and they are they which testify of me. And ye will not come to me, that ye might have life.” (John 5:39-40 KJV) In line with this the New Testament also refers to those who were “ever learning, and never able to come to the knowledge of the truth.” (2 Timothy 3:7 KJV) Bible study is very important but filling your head with knowledge will not make up for not actually knowing Jesus Christ in a personal relationship.

          Note also that the Bible does not teach the us-only pride or the we-versus-they complex that characterize the so-called Jehovah’s Witnesses. (Psalm 119:63; Mark 9:38-42; Philippians 1:18; etc.) JWs point to Bible passages such as Matthew 7:13-14, 21, and Ephesians 4:5 to prove that there is only one true Christian religion. It is true that there is one way: Jesus is the way, not a man-made organization. “Jesus saith unto him, I am the way, the truth, and the life: no man cometh unto the Father, but by me.” (John 14:6)

WATCHTOWER ANTITRINITARIANISM

          Cults often attack the doctrine of the Trinity. Watchtower publications teach that only The Father is Jehovah, that Jesus Christ is a created angel, that the Holy Spirit is an impersonal force, and that the Trinity is a pagan teaching and "Not a Bible teaching." (Reasoning From The Scriptures, p.405)

          Watchtower publications point out that the doctrine of the Trinity was made a doctrine by the Roman Catholic Church in the third or fourth century in the Nicene Creed. Note that the Virgin Birth of Christ is an official doctrine of the Roman Catholic Church and is professed in the Apostles’ Creed and the Nicene Creed. Does this mean we should deny the Virgin Birth of Christ, or should we just accept the Holy Bible as the final authority even if the Roman Catholic Church agrees with something in the Bible?

          The Trinity is not a pagan doctrine as ancient pagans did not worship any trinity, they worshipped triads. A triad is three gods, while the Trinity is one God existing in three persons. The word Trinity is a combination of the word "trine," which means threefold or three times, and the suffix "-ity," which means state, character, or condition. The Trinity doctrine means that God is triune (1x1x1) and not triplex (1+1+1). (1 John 5:7 KJV) Our English word person comes from the Latin word "persona," which is literally a face mask used by actors, and hence a person, character, etc. God is characterized by interior personal relationships. (Genesis 1:26-27; 11:6-8; 2 Corinthians 13:14; Ephesians 2:18, 22; 1 Peter 1:2) Salvation is an example of this: As the Father, God originates salvation and made provision for salvation; as the Son, God paid the penalty for sin; as the Holy Ghost, God applies salvation.

          Questions for Jehovah’s Witnesses: Can you refute the doctrine of the Trinity without accusing Christians of worshipping three Gods and then arguing that there is only one God? If I were to accuse you of believing the moon is made of green cheese and then showed you hard evidence that the moon is not made of green cheese would that prove that I am right and you are wrong? So why do JWs think that accusing trinitarians of worshipping three Gods and then arguing that there is only one true God, or that only Jehovah is God, disproves the doctrine of the Trinity? Successfully refuting tritheism does not disprove the doctrine of the Trinity. “Tritheism (from Greek τριθεΐα, "three divinity") is a polytheistic nontrinitarian Christian conception of God in which the unity of the Trinity and, by extension, monotheism are denied. It asserts that, rather than being single God of three eternally consubstantial Persons, the Father, Son (Jesus), and Holy Spirit are three ontologically separate Gods.” (Wikipedia) “Trinity, in Christian doctrine, the unity of Father, Son, and Holy Spirit as three persons in one Godhead. The doctrine of the Trinity is considered to be one of the central Christian affirmations about God. It is rooted in the fact that God came to meet Christians in a threefold figure: (1) as Creator, Lord of the history of salvation, Father, and Judge, as revealed in the Old Testament; (2) as the Lord who, in the incarnated figure of Jesus Christ, lived among human beings and was present in their midst as the “Resurrected One”; and (3) as the Holy Spirit, whom they experienced as the helper or intercessor in the power of the new life.” (Britannica)

          Being difficult to understand does not make the doctrine of the Trinity a false doctrine. Whether any of us completely understand or even accept a Bible truth does not determine if it is a Bible truth, and since God is our Creator and is so much higher, we should not be surprised to find difficulties in understanding His nature. God reveals Himself to man through words, words in his word. As the Spirit of God reveals truths to us through the word of God, he becomes more majestic to us, not simple. (Psalm 97:2)

THE TRINITY IN THE OLD TESTAMENT

          While the word Trinity is not used in the Bible, the doctrine of the triunity of God is clearly taught in the New Testament, and while the Trinity is not explicitly taught in the Old Testament, the Old Testament hints at the triunity of God. In Deuteronomy 6:4, the Hebrew word for one, Ehad, is also used in other contexts to suggest plurality in unity. (e.g., Genesis 2:24; 41:25) One of the Hebrew words rendered God, Elohim, is plural in form, and when it is not referring to the one true God is rendered as gods (plural) in the Old Testament. Another Hebrew word used in reference to God, Adonai, which is rendered as Lord is also plural, and is usually translated in the plural except when used in reference to the one true God. Some Old Testament passages speak of the Spirit of God as being sent by God and speaking for God and make a distinction between God (the Father) and another personality called the Spirit of God. (Nehemiah 9:20, 30; Isaiah 48:16; 63:10) Usually, God speaks of himself using singular pronouns (e.g., Exodus 33:19; Hosea 11:9; etc.), and sometimes he uses plural pronouns indicating that God is characterized by interior personal relationships (e.g., Genesis 1:26; 3:22; 11:7; Isaiah 6:8; etc.). The doctrine of the Trinity finds support in Messianic passages in the Old Testament, such as Psalm 45:6-7 where the psalmist is addressing Elohim and suddenly speaks of “thy God.”

THE DEITY OF CHRIST

          If Jesus is God, why did he pray to God? When David said “O my soul” in Psalm 103:1 was he addressing another man? If I refer to my spirit, my soul, or my body, am I talking about another man? God is triune, man is made in the image and likeness of God, and man is triune. (Genesis 1:26-27; 1 Thessalonians 5:23; 1 John 5:7)

          Watchtower publications use 1 Corinthians 15:28 and similar passages to try to prove that Jesus Christ is inferior to the Father by virtue of His being subject. However, submission or subjection does not necessarily mean inferiority; it is often a form of love. A wife should submit to her husband because of love for God and her husband. (Ephesians 5:22-24; Colossians 3:18; 1 Corinthians 11:3) Questions for Jehovah’s Witnesses: Does the Bible ever indicate that the headship of a husband over his wife means that a woman is naturally inferior to men? Do you believe that compatibility between functional subordination and equality of being is possible? How do you reconcile the subjection of Christ to Joseph and Mary with the claim that Jesus Christ is inferior to the Father by his being subject? (Luke 2:51; John 1:3)

          John 14:28 is another favorite Watchtower proof text. Note that Jesus did not say the Father is better, he said the Father is "greater," a reference to position and not nature. Also note that the MAN Christ Jesus is mediator. (1 Timothy 2:5; also consider John 5:19; Acts 2:29-33; Colossians 2:9; Philippians 2:5-11; Hebrews 2:8,9; 10:12) If you and I were in the same room with the President of the United States the President would be the greatest person in the room, but that would not mean he is better than anyone.

          Watchtower publications also refer to Revelation 3:14 which says that Jesus is "the beginning of the creation of God." The word beginning here is the rendering of the Greek word Arche, which means first cause, origin, or source, and is where we get the English word "architect."

          Watchtower literature often points to Bible passages which say that Jesus Christ is only-begotten to try to support their claim Jesus is a created angel. The word only-begotten is the rendering of the Greek word monogenes, which simply means the only one of a class or kind.

          Watchtower publications refer to Colossians 1:15 which says Jesus Christ is "the firstborn of every creature" to prove that he was a created angel before he was conceived in Mary's womb. The term firstborn means the legal heir and does not always mean the eldest. The nation of Israel was called firstborn even though there were other nations already in existence before Israel was formed. Psalm 89:27 calls King David firstborn even though David was the youngest son in his family.

          Watchtower publications say that Jesus Christ cannot be God and must be created because the Bible calls him the Son of God. The term son is used in the Bible to denote or imply almost any kind of descent or succession, and the meaning of the word depends on the setting and context in which it is used. (Consider Exodus 2:10 and Hebrews 1:8) Son of God was a messianic title which signified the function of Deliverer. (E.g. Matthew 16:16) Note that the Devil tempted Christ by bringing against Him the popular Jewish conceptions of the Messiah. (Matthew 4:1-6)

          Ask a JW to show any passage of Scripture which says that Jesus Christ was a created angel before He was an embryo in Mary's womb. His humanity originated in Mary's womb, but not his deity. (Micah 7:2; Matthew 1:18-23; Luke 1:31-35; John 8:58; Galatians 4:4; Hebrews 7:3; 10:5) Christ is God veiled in human flesh. (Matthew 1:23; John 1:1-14; 10:30; 14:9-10; 2 Corinthians 5:19; Colossians 1:15; 2:9; 1 Timothy 3:16)

          Watchtower publications compare the unity of the Father and the Son to the unity of Christians. (John 8:28, 29; 10:30; 17:20-22; 1 Corinthians 1:10) But consider the context of 1 Corinthians 1:10; this was written because Christians, even believers who were members of the same congregation, were divided.

          Watchtower publications point to John 1:18 which says, "No man hath seen God at any time," and people did see Jesus Christ. No man hath seen God as he is, only visions or materializations of God, but there have been those who have seen God manifest in the flesh. (John 4:24; 6:46; 14:9; Philippians 2:6-7; 1 Timothy 3:16. Incidentally, 1 Timothy 3:16 says “God was manifest in the flesh” in the KJV, and the NWT changes this to “He was made manifest in flesh,” but even if the NWT rendering was correct, how would “He was made manifest in flesh” be a mystery?)

          In the New World Translation (the Watchtower Society's translation) John 1:1 says the Word was "a god." This is because the third stanza of the Greek text does not use the definite article, and it is therefore assumed that this must be translated indefinitely as "a god" or "divine." For John 1:1 to say that Jesus was a lesser form of deity the Greek word theios would have been used instead of Theos. In the 282 New Testament references to God without using the definite article with the word theos the New World Translation usually renders theos as "God," such as in Luke 20:38 and verses 6, 12, 13, and 18 of chapter one of John. Should we change John 1:18 to say: "No man hath seen a god at any time?" Questions for Jehovah’s Witnesses: Why isn't the same rule applied to John 1:1 in the New World Translation also applied to the other New Testament passages where Theos is used without the definite article? How do you reconcile the New World Translation rendering of John 1:1 with Deuteronomy 32:39, Isaiah 43:10 & Isaiah 44:8?

          Watchtower publications say that only the Father is the one true God based on John 17:3 and say that Jesus Christ is “a god” based on the New World Translation’s rendering of John 1:1. Questions for Jehovah’s Witnesses: Is Jesus a true god or a false god? If Jesus is a true god, how is it possible to reconcile this with John 17:3? If Jesus is a false god, how is it possible to reconcile this with John 1:1?

          If only the Father is God and Jesus is "a god," then how many "gods" do JWs have in their religion? (Isaiah 43:10; Isaiah 44:8. Note that Watchtower publications say it is incorrect for the KJV to usually render the Tetragrammaton, the Hebrew name of God, as “LORD” or “GOD” in upper-case letters and not always render it as “Jehovah.” But note that there is no completely “accurate” way of translating the Tetragrammaton into another language, nobody knows the correct pronunciation for sure, and whether “LORD,” “GOD,” or “Jehovah” is used the reader can discern that this is a rendering of the Tetragrammaton.)

          Jesus Christ is the true God. (1 John 5:20; Jeremiah 10:10)

          Jesus is called Mighty God (Isaiah 9:6), only Jehovah is God (Isaiah 43:10; 44:6), and Jehovah is called Mighty God. (Isaiah 10:20-21) Jesus is Jehovah of Hosts. (Isaiah 8:13-14; 1 Peter 2:7-8) Jesus is God the judge. (Ecclesiastes 12:14; 1 Corinthians 4:5; 2 Corinthians 5:10; 2 Timothy 4:1) Whose glory did Isaiah see? (Isaiah 6:1; John 12:37-41) Jesus is Jehovah, the first and the last. (Isaiah 44:6; Revelation 1:8, 17-18; 2:8; 22:13, 16) Jesus is Jehovah, the light. (Psalm 27:1; Isaiah 60:19; 1 Timothy 1:1; Titus 1:3; 2:10, 13; 3:4, 6) Jesus is Jehovah, the Shepherd. (Psalm 23:1; John 10:11) Jesus is Jehovah, the Creator. (Isaiah 44:24; Psalm 102:24-27; Hebrews 1:8-12; John 1:3; Colossians 1:16-17) Jesus is Jehovah, the King. (Psalm 24:10; Acts 17:7) For Whom did John the Baptist prepare the way? (Isaiah 40:3; Matthew 3:1-3; Luke 1:76; also compare Malachi 3:1 and Matthew 11:10) There are numerous contradictions in Scripture unless Jesus is Jehovah.

          Whose manifestation and whose kingdom is referred to in 2 Timothy 4:1?

          Who did Stephen pray to? (Acts 7:59-60)

THE HOLY SPIRIT

          If someone lies to the Holy Spirit, he lies to God. How is it possible to lie to an impersonal force? If you lie you lie to a person. (Acts 5:3-4) The Holy Spirit speaks (Acts 13:2-4; 1 Timothy 4:1), hears (John 16:13), makes intercession (Romans 8:26), has intellect (Romans 8:27), makes decisions (Acts 15:28), grieves (Ephesians 4:30), and has a will (1 Corinthians 12:11). These are characteristics of a personality.

          The Holy Spirit is Jehovah. (Exodus 17:7; Hebrews 3:7-9) The Holy Spirit is Jehovah of Hosts. (Isaiah 6:3, 8-10; Acts 28:25-27) The Holy Spirit is Jehovah, Most High. (Psalm 78:17, 21; Acts 7:51) The Holy Spirit is Jehovah, who promised the New Covenant. (Jeremiah 31:31-34; Hebrews 10:15-17) There are contradictions in Scripture, unless the Holy Spirit is Jehovah.

WATCHTOWER ANNIHILATIONISM

          “Shall not the Judge of all the earth do right?” (Genesis 18:25b) The Bible teaching on the eternal punishment of the unsaved dead can be difficult to accept because as depraved humans with a sinful nature we do not fully grasp the severity of our sinful condition without divine intervention. When Jesus prayed “let this cup pass from me” it was obviously the prospect of becoming sin that he prayed about. (Matthew 26:39) Consider that if you were told that you were going to be put in a room full of lepers in various stages of leprosy the prospect would probably fill your heart with fear, unless you were a leper. “For he hath made him to be sin for us, who knew no sin; that we might be made the righteousness of God in him.” (2 Corinthians 5:21) We must be willing to accept that whatever God does is right even if it might be difficult for us to fully understand.

          The Jehovah's Witnesses deny the teaching of eternal punishment in Hellfire for the unsaved dead and teach that death is a termination of existence and Hell is the common grave of mankind and a state of unconsciousness. What does the Bible teach?

          In the Bible the word soul is used to denote mere animal or physical life, as Watchtower literature points out, but it usually means the internal, immaterial aspect or ego of man, and the Bible makes a distinction between the body and the soul. Also, while the Bible does say that animals have souls, it does not say or indicate that they are immortal. Need proof? Simply look up occurrences of the word soul in the New World Translation and pay attention to wording, grammar, and context.

          Watchtower publications use Ezekiel 18:4 as proof that the soul dies. The soul does die in the same sense that Adam and Eve died the very day they ate the forbidden fruit. (Genesis 2:17; 5:3-5) Death means separation: Physical death is the separation of the soul and body. (Genesis 35:18) Spiritual death is separation of man from God. (Romans 5:12, 17; Ephesians 2:1; Colossians 2:13; I Peter 4:6)

          Watchtower literature says that the spirit is merely one's breath. In Acts 7:59 was Stephen asking Jesus to take away his bad breath?

          Watchtower publications use Ecclesiastes 9:5 & 10 as proof texts because they appear to describe “the grave” (Hebrew: Sheol) as a condition of unconsciousness and inactivity. Hell is a place of unconsciousness and inactivity when it comes to bodily senses and the affairs of this world. (Isaiah 63:16; John 9:4; Revelation 14:13) While Ecclesiastes 9:5 & 10 may not prove there is conscious existence after death, these passages do not prove that there is no conscious existence after death. Will all receive the same fate or destiny, whether they are faithful or wicked? "All things come alike to all: there is one event to the righteous, and to the wicked; to the good and to the clean, and to the unclean; to him that sacrificeth, and to him that sacrificeth not: as is the good, so is the sinner; and he that sweareth, as he that feareth an oath." (Ecclesiastes 9:2) Does the phrase “for the memory of them is forgotten” in Ecclesiastes 9:5 mean there will be no resurrection after this life for anyone? Ecclesiastes 9:5 & 10 and their context deal with the inevitability of physical death.

          The word rendered destruction in 2 Thessalonians 1:9 is the Greek word olethros. Olethros means a ruin of one's state of being and is used in 1 Timothy 6:9. Olethros does not mean the termination of existence.

          The word rendered destruction in Matthew 10:28 is the Greek word apollumi, which means ruin or loss of well-being. This word is used in Luke 5:37 regarding the destruction of wineskins and does not mean a termination of existence.

          The word Hell is the rendering of the Hebrew word Sheol, and the Greek words Hades, Gehenna, and Tartaroo. The verb Tartaroo means cast down to Tartarus; Tartarus means the deepest or lowest places. (2 Peter 2:4) Sheol is the unseen state or world of the dead, whether lost or saved. (Genesis 37:35; Psalm 31:17; Isaiah 38:10) Hades is the unseen world of the dead, usually of the lost, and corresponds to Sheol. (Luke 16:23; Revelation 20:13-14) Hades is a place of disembodied souls of the dead. (Acts 2:31; Psalm 16:10) Paradise refers to a division of Hades (Sheol) reserved for the saved dead. (Job 3:13-19; Luke 23:43) At the time of the resurrection of Christ, Paradise was changed from beneath into heaven. (Isaiah 42:6-7; 2 Corinthians 12:2-4; Ephesians 4:8-9)

          Watchtower publications claim that the account of the Rich Man and Lazarus is a parable and does not relate an actual occurrence. (Luke 16:19-31) If this account is a parable (even though the context gives no indication of this), keep in mind that a parable is an example or picture which verifies something, and a symbol is a small representation of a greater reality. Watchtower literature says the Rich Man represents false religious leaders and Lazarus represents true Christians. If this is the case, then who are the Rich Man's five brothers and why did he want Lazarus to witness to them? (Luke 16:27-31)

          Gehenna (Valley of Hinnom) is a valley near Jerusalem where Solomon and others built high places and sacrificed children to Moloch and Chemosh by burning them alive. (1 Kings 11:7; 2 Chronicles 28:3; 33:6; Jeremiah 32:35) Gehenna eventually became a city dump and incinerator. (2 Kings 23:10) Gehenna was considered an abomination and came to signify Hell in the modern sense of the word and is used in the Bible to mean Hell. Were the Scribes and Pharisees thrown into the literal Valley of Hinnom? (Matthew 23:15, 33) Who is referred to in Luke 12:4-5, and why should anyone fear someone who can do more to him after the body is killed if death is a termination of existence? Is there still fire burning in the literal Valley of Hinnom? (Mark 9:47-48) Are there worms that never die in the literal Valley of Hinnom? (Mark 9:44, 46, 48) The Old Testament refers to the lost in Hell as worms or maggots, so we can assume that this is what Christ meant. It is obvious that Gehenna is the Lake of fire and brimstone. (Mark 9:43-48; Revelation 21:8) The Lake of fire is called the second death because it is the final judgment of the unsaved dead after they have been physically resurrected. It is the conclusive and permanent separation from God. (Matthew 7:23; Hebrews 6:2; 2 Peter 2:4-9; Revelation 20:11-15)

          Why fire? Fire is purifying. (Numbers 31:23; 1 Peter 1:7; Revelation 3:18) Everything contaminated by sin must be purified, and those not washed in the blood of the Lamb must be purified by fire. But fire will not atone for sin or remove the sins of the lost, which is why the fire never ceases. (Matthew 3:12; 25:41, 46; 2 Thessalonians 1:7-9)

THE NAME JEHOVAH IS NOT IN THE NEW TESTAMENT

          Jehovah's Witnesses, and sometimes ex-JWs, insist that the New World Translation of the New Testament is more accurate because it includes the Hebrew name of God. Is this a correct assumption?

          No ancient Greek manuscripts of the New Testament contain the Hebrew name of God.

          If I were to talk about Mosheh many readers would not immediately recognize that I was referring to Moses, even though Moses is an inaccurate rendering of the word Mosheh. The same would be true of other Hebrew names. The Hebrew name of God, the Tetragrammaton, is a Hebrew word that most Gentiles would probably not be able to pronounce even if the correct pronunciation were known.

          Consider that the name Jesus is the Latin counterpart of the Hebrew Yeshua, the Hebrew word Yeshua means "Jehovah-Savior" or "Jehovah is salvation" or "salvation of Jehovah," and in the Old Testament the New World Translation often renders Yeshua as merely "salvation," such as in Job 13:16 & Psalm 13:5.

          The New Testament is inspired of God, and Jesus Christ recognized and verified the inspiration and authority of the New Testament by way of anticipation. (John 14:26; 16:12-13) New Testament quotes of the Old Testament are translations of a Hebrew text into Greek, and under inspiration of God the New Testament Bible writers rendered the Hebrew name of God as Lord (Gr. Kurios) in their quotations of the Old Testament. Why? Because of the changeover of the authority and power of the name of Jehovah to the name of Jesus. (John 5:23; 17:11; Acts 4:12; Philippians 2:9-11; Hebrews 1:4)

          The Watchtower Society inserts the Hebrew name of God into the New Testament text of the New World Translation to support their doctrines and support their claim that only Jehovah's Witnesses are true Christians and that only Jehovah's Witnesses will be saved.

The Watchtower Gospel

          "I marvel that ye are so soon removed from him that called you into the grace of Christ unto another gospel: Which is not another; but there be some that trouble you, and would pervert the gospel of Christ. But though we, or an angel from heaven, preach any other gospel unto you than that which we have preached unto you, let him be accursed." (Galatians 1:6-8)

          "But I fear, lest by any means, as the serpent beguiled Eve through his subtilty, so your minds should be corrupted from the simplicity that is in Christ. For if he that cometh preacheth another Jesus, whom we have not preached, or if ye receive another spirit, which ye have not received, or another gospel, which ye have not accepted, ye might well bear with him." (2 Corinthians 11:3-4)

          It should be noted that the New Testament does not specify the method that Christians must use to share the Gospel. I certainly do not say this to criticize or discourage visitation work or any church visitation programs; such efforts should be commended and encouraged. But Watchtower publications use Acts 20:20 to insist that house-to-house witnessing is mandatory for Christians and that Jehovah's Witnesses are the only true Christians because other so-called Christian groups do not go witnessing door to door or do not do this as often. Why does the Watchtower Society avoid the obvious: Acts 20:20 refers to congregations. The early Christians usually met for worship in private homes, house-churches, and in the New Testament a congregation was referred to as a house (like the way we often refer to a congregation as a church today, even though a church is a building used for public Christian worship). (Romans 16:5; 1 Corinthians 6:19; Colossians 4:15; 2 Timothy 3:6; Philemon 2; 2 John 10)

          The point is that the message is the main issue and not the method of proclaiming that message, and even if Jehovah's Witnesses were right about the method that Christians are obligated to use to proclaim the Gospel the Jehovah’s Witnesses have the wrong message. The Gospel preached by Christ, the Apostles, and Bible-believing Christians throughout Christian history is the death, burial, and literal resurrection of Christ through which repentant sinners are justified (declared righteous) through faith in the person and work of Jesus Christ. (John 3:13-15; Acts 4:15-19; 1 Corinthians 15:1-4) What is the Gospel being proclaimed by Jehovah's Witnesses? The re-establishment of God’s kingdom commencing with the invisible return of Christ in 1914:

          Let the honest-hearted person compare the kind of preaching of the gospel of the Kingdom done by the religious systems of Christendom during all the centuries with that done by Jehovah's Witnesses since the end of World War I in 1918. They are not one and the same kind. That of Jehovah's Witnesses is really "gospel," or "good news," as of God's heavenly kingdom that was established by the enthronement of his Son Jesus Christ at the end of the Gentile Times in 1914. (The Watchtower 5/1/81, p.17)

          “Ye see then how that by works a man is justified, and not by faith only.” (James 2:24) This passage is often used to support salvation by works, or salvation by faith plus works. But the wording and context make it clear that this is dealing with a Christian’s position before his fellow man and what his fellow man sees. (There is no difficulty or contradiction between the Epistle to the Romans and the Epistle of James on the matter of faith: The Epistle to the Romans deals with what God sees and the Epistle of James deals with what man sees.) A believer is justified before his fellow man by works and justified before God by faith alone. (Romans 4:5; Ephesians 2:8-9)

          A mere belief without genuine repentance is not saving faith. (Acts 3:19; also consider Psalm 34:18; Isaiah 55:6-7; 57:15; 66:2) Faith and repentance can be described as the two sides of the same coin, as they are inseparable; repentance is the turning from sin to God, and faith is the turning to Jesus Christ (God in the flesh) for salvation. (Acts 20:21) Repentance is necessary for salvation; it is the effective agent for forgiveness and remission of sins through the power of the cross. Saving faith is repentant faith. (Luke 24:47; Acts 2:38; 3:19; 11:18; 17:30-31; 1 Corinthians 1:17; 2 Corinthians 7:10)

          Salvation is a personal experience with Jesus Christ and is through the finished work of Calvary, not the blood of Christ along with additional supplements. (John 3:13-16; 5:39-40; Acts 2:21; 10:43; Romans 5:1-2,8-11; 1 Corinthians 15:1-4; 2 Corinthians 5:17-18; Titus 3:5-6; 1 Peter 1:3; 1 John 5:20) Jehovah's Witnesses do acknowledge that faith is essential for salvation but they add works to faith, and Watchtower publications teach that one must be an active Jehovah's Witness and obedient to the Watchtower Society to be saved. Is believing in Jesus Christ sufficient for salvation or must we combine faith and good works to qualify for salvation? Note that the New Testament says that salvation is by faith alone without works almost two hundred times. (Consider John 3:15; 5:24; 11:25; 12:46; 20:31; Acts 16:30-31; Romans 3:20; 4:5; Galatians 2:16; Ephesians 2:8-9; Titus 3:5; etc..; also, compare Acts 16:31 with Acts 16:34 and note that believing in Jesus and believing in God are presented as identical acts) "Exercising faith" by doing good works is not what saves. Good works follow salvation but are not the cause of salvation. While genuine faith produces good works, it is faith alone that brings salvation and not good works. (John 3:16, 18; Romans 1:16-17; 4:5; 1 Corinthians 3:13-15; 2 Thessalonians 1:8-10; Titus 1:16; 1 Peter 1:3-10; James 2:14-16; consider Isaiah 64:6)

 

WATCHTOWER TEACHINGS ON 1975 & SIX THOUSAND YEARS OF HUMAN HISTORY ARE FLAWED

          Watchtower publications have long taught that each creative day of the Genesis account of creation was 7,000 years long. For years prior to 1975 the Watchtower Society predicted 1975 as the year for Armageddon on the basis that September of 1975 marked 6,000 years since Adam’s creation and therefore marked 6,000 years of God’s “rest day.” (Genesis 2:2) Watchtower publications taught that the Millennium would be the last 1,000 years of God’s “rest day” and would begin with Armageddon. Since 1975 the Watchtower Society still teaches that September of 1975 marked 6,000 years since Adam’s creation but has been teaching that the “rest day” began after the creation of Eve and we do not know how much time elapsed between the creation of Adam and the creation of Eve.

          The Bible clearly teaches that the six days of creation were six normal days. “For in six days the LORD made heaven and earth, the sea, and all that in them is, and rested the seventh day: wherefore the LORD blessed the sabbath day, and hallowed it.” (Exodus 20:11) “Six days may work be done; but in the seventh is the sabbath of rest, holy to the LORD: whosoever doeth any work in the sabbath day, he shall surely be put to death. Wherefore the children of Israel shall keep the sabbath, to observe the sabbath throughout their generations, for a perpetual covenant. It is a sign between me and the children of Israel for ever: for in six days the LORD made heaven and earth, and on the seventh day he rested, and was refreshed. (Exodus 31:15-17)

          Theories about the time of Adam's creation could be off by hundreds or thousands of years due to the difference in the way ancient historians recorded genealogies. Ancient Hebrews often listed the most important son or the legal heir first, not necessarily the eldest son. For example, Genesis 11:26 says "And Terah lived seventy years, and begat Abram, Nahor, and Haran," but a comparison of Scripture passages reveals that Terah was 130 years old when Abram was born. (Genesis 11:32; 12:1-4; Acts 7:4) Apparently Genesis 11:26 means that Terah was 70 years old when he begat his sons, of whom Abram was the legal heir or the most important. Modern writers like to include every name in a genealogy, but ancient writers just included the important names and often skipped several generations at a time. For example, Genesis 11:12 says "And Arphaxad lived five and thirty years, and begat Salah" even though Arphaxad was the grandfather of Salah. (Luke 3:35-36) In listing his own genealogy Ezra gives the names of only sixteen generations between himself and Aaron even though his list covers about a thousand years. Ezra evidently just listed the officially reckonable names. (Ezra 7:1-5) Matthew 1:8 says "Joram begat Ozias," but according to the Old Testament Joram was the great-great-grandfather of Ozias (Uzziah). Matthew evidently means the officially reckonable generations when he speaks of generations. (Matthew 1:17) The original writers and the first readers understood why certain names were included and others were omitted, but we come to wrong conclusions when we assume that Bible writers recorded genealogies like western or modern historians and then interpret those writings accordingly.

DID THE “LAST DAYS” BEGIN IN 1914 AD AS TAUGHT IN WATCHTOWER PUBLICATIONS?

          Watchtower publications say Christ returned invisibly to reestablish God’s kingdom in 1914 AD, and that this was the beginning of the “last days” leading to Armageddon, and Watchtower publications insist that the “signs” prove that the end is near. But is this what the Bible teaches?

          Questions for Jehovah’s Witnesses: How do you reconcile the promise of Matthew 28:20 with the Watchtower teaching that the return of Christ would be invisible and that He returned invisibly in 1914 AD? When the Watchtower Society changed their teaching about the 1914 generation, were the JWs who were disfellowshipped for teaching what the Watchtower Society now teaches reinstated and issued an apology to make up for the mistake, and why not?

          Many Bible prophecies that Watchtower publications apply to the twentieth century and this century to prove Watchtower theories are fulfilled prophecies (e.g., Nebuchadnezzar’s recovery from lycanthropy, return of the Jews from Babylonian captivity, destruction of Jerusalem in 70 AD, etc.).

          How do Jehovah’s Witnesses calculate 1914 AD to be the year of the second coming (Greek: Parousia) of Christ referred to in Matthew 24:3? The line of Kingdom rulers was interrupted in 607 BC when Jerusalem was destroyed by the Babylonian Army and God's kingdom of Judah fell. (Ezekiel 21:25-27) Seven times to pass until rule restored. (Daniel 4:32, 16, 17) Seven=2 x 3 1/2 times, or 2 x 1,260 days. (Revelation 12:6, 14; 11:2, 3) A day for a year, making 2,520 years. (Ezekiel 4:6; Numbers 14:34) To run until the kingdom's establishment. (Luke 21:24; Daniel 7:13-14)

          Now let's look at just a few problems with this: The prophecy about seven times to pass until the rule is restored was about Nebuchadnezzar and was fulfilled in Nebuchadnezzar's lifetime. (Daniel 4:30-36) All credible scholars give 586 BC as the year Jerusalem was destroyed by the Babylonian Army. Question for Jehovah’s Witnesses: Does it concern you that the Watchtower calculations making 1914 the year Christ returned are based on a date they cannot verify and a prophecy about Nebuchadnezzar (Nebuchadnezzar’s recovery from lycanthropy) that was fulfilled in Nebuchadnezzar's lifetime? (Daniel 4:16, 30-36)

          “And he said unto them, It is not for you to know the times or the seasons, which the Father hath put in his own power.” (Acts 1:7) It is important to remember that the schedule or timetable for the fulfillment of prophetic events is the Lord’s business, and God is not obliged to submit to any schedule men set for him. Questions for Jehovah’s Witnesses: Do the many failed predictions of the Watchtower Society ever make you question if they really are God’s channel of truth? Where does the Bible say that a person must belong to an organization that did not exist until the 19th century to survive Armageddon?

          Does the Olivet Discourse provide signs or conditions to indicate to people of our generation that Armageddon is near? Let's take another look:

• The Olivet Discourse is a reply to the disciples’ inquiry about the end of the Jewish world, which centered on Jerusalem and the temple, and the Second Coming (Greek: Parousia): "And Jesus went out, and departed from the temple: and his disciples came to him for to shew him the buildings of the temple. And Jesus said unto them, See ye not all these things? verily I say unto you, There shall not be left here one stone upon another, that shall not be thrown down. And as he sat upon the mount of Olives, the disciples came unto him privately, saying, Tell us, when shall these things be? and what shall be the sign of thy coming, and of the end of the world?" (Matthew 24:1-3)

• There were many deceivers claiming to be Christian (saying that Jesus is Christ) and there were many false prophets and false messiahs in the years preceding the destruction of Jerusalem in 70 AD. (Matthew 24:4-5, 11, 24; Romans 16:17-18; 2 Corinthians 11:13-15; Titus 1:10)

• Wars, famines, and pestilences characterised the years preceding the destruction of Jerusalem in 70 AD. (Matthew 24:6-7)

• Matthew 24:14 is not the Great Commission given in Matthew 28:18-20. In any language words often have various possible meanings which depend on context. Matthew 24:14 is part of a prophecy about the destruction of Jerusalem in 70 AD and is saying the gospel would be preached throughout the Roman Empire before the destruction; compare the use of word "world" elsewhere. For example, did Caesar Augustus tax everyone on the entire inhabited earth or everyone in the Roman Empire? (Luke 2:1) Matthew 28:18-20 refers to the entire inhabited earth and verse twenty refers to the Second Advent as Christ began with "All power is given unto me in heaven and in earth. Go ye therefore ...." Matthew 24:14 was fulfilled before the destruction of Jerusalem in 70 AD. (Romans 1:8; 16:28; Colossians 1:6, 23)

• Matthew 24:15 is an obvious reference to the earthly temple in Jerusalem then in operation. "When ye therefore shall see the abomination of desolation, spoken of by Daniel the prophet, stand in the holy place, (whoso readeth, let him understand:)" (Matthew 24:15; compare Hebrews 9:11-12, 24-25) In 66 A.D., Roman forces surrounded Jerusalem and made a thrust up to the temple walls and then withdrew for no apparent reason, and then the Christians in Judea fled to the mountains as instructed. “Then let them which be in Judaea flee into the mountains.” (Matthew 24:16)

• “For then shall be great tribulation, such as was not since the beginning of the world to this time, no, nor ever shall be.” (Matthew 24:21) This verse is preceded by “Then let them which be in Judaea flee into the mountains: Let him which is on the housetop not come down to take any thing out of his house: Neither let him which is in the field return back to take his clothes. And woe unto them that are with child, and to them that give suck in those days! But pray ye that your flight be not in the winter, neither on the sabbath day.” (Matthew 24:16-20)

• Matthew 24:29 uses an Old Testament figure of speech for national disaster. (Isaiah 13:10; Ezekiel 32:7; Joel 2:10; 3:15)

• Christ used figurative language to say that people would see the evidence or sign of His coming (Greek: Erchomia) in judgment against Jerusalem in 66-70 AD. Followers of Christ were destined to occupy all nations and gather the elect from all peoples. Christianity did spread and prevail after this period. (Matthew 24:30-31)

• Matthew 24:4-34 was fulfilled within the lifetime of people living when the prophecy was uttered. "Verily I say unto you, This generation shall not pass, till all these things be fulfilled." (Matthew 24:34; compare the use of the word "generation" in Matthew 11:16; 12:39; 17:17; 23:36; etc...) After verse thirty-four the subject changes to the Second Advent (Parousia) and the discourse does not give us any visible signs or verifiable events to precede the Second Advent except people carrying on with their lives unaware. (Matthew 24:36-39)

          Do references to the “last days” give signs or conditions to indicate to people of our generation that the end of the world is near? The term "last days" refers to the Christian era, and it should be noted that all the New Testament references to "last days" were written before the Destruction of Jerusalem in 70 AD. (Compare Joel 2:28-32 & Acts 2:16-21; 2 Timothy 3:1; Hebrews 1:1-2; 2 Peter 3:2-3) Christ was upon the earth during the “last days.” (Genesis 49:1 & 10; Hebrews 1:1-2; 9:26) The Old Testament served as the “days of old” and “former years” that gave way to the “last days” that started at the First Coming of Christ. “Then shall the offering of Judah and Jerusalem be pleasant unto the LORD, as in the days of old, and as in former years.” (Malachi 3:4) Chapter three of Second Peter is a continuation of the discussion in chapter two about false teachers; these scoffers used a first century version of newspaper exegesis to deny the future destruction based on then-current events and conditions and willful ignorance of God’s past destruction of an ungodly world by global deluge. (2 Peter 3:3-10) The instruction "from such turn away" indicates that the previously described conditions in chapter three of 2 Timothy existed at the time this epistle was written. (2 Timothy 3:5)

          If 2 Timothy 3:1-9 is a description of world conditions prior to Armageddon then how many times has Armageddon occurred over the last two thousand years? If God wanted 2 Timothy 3 to be a warning of perilous times resulting from conditions that have been characteristic of the world, in greater and lesser degrees throughout Christian history, and a warning or reminder that the advance of Christianity would be accompanied by efforts of enemies of the Gospel to thwart the Lord’s work through persecution from without and corruption from within, how would he have changed the wording of 2 Timothy 3?

Watchtower Teachings About The Second Coming

          Jehovah’s Witnesses deny the Second Coming of Christ in bodily human form and teach that Christ returned invisibly in 1914 AD and that the Second Coming is invisible. JWs will inevitably refer to John 14:19. "A little longer and the world will behold me no more, but YOU will behold me, because I live and YOU will live." (John 14:19 NWT) The world in which Christ lived when He said this beheld Him no more. (Acts 1:9; consider 2 Peter 3:6) JWs will also refer to     1 Timothy 6:16. But notice this does not say that Christ is unapproachable and cannot be seen, it says this about the light He dwells in. The Bible does say that we no longer know Christ according to the flesh, but it also says this about fellow Christians. (2 Corinthians 5:16-17) In heaven today Jesus Christ has a glorified human body. (Acts 1:9-11; 2:29-33; Colossians 2:9; 1 Timothy 2:5;            Hebrews 10:12-13; 1 John 4:1-3) The Bible clearly teaches that the return of Christ will be personal and visible. (Acts 1:11; Revelation 1:7) JWs will point to Acts 1:9-11 and explain that something in a cloud is unseen and so this must mean that His return is invisible. But look at this text again: Did anyone see Christ ascend with their literal human eyes, and was Christ caught up into a figurative or imaginary cloud?

          How do they calculate 1914 AD to be the year of the return of Christ? The line of Kingdom rulers was interrupted in 607 BC when Jerusalem was destroyed by the Babylonian Army and God's kingdom of Judah fell. (Ezekiel 21:25-27) Seven times to pass until rule restored. (Daniel 4:32, 16, 17) Seven=2 x 3 1/2 times, or 2 x 1,260 days. (Revelation 12:6, 14; 11:2, 3) A day for a year, making 2,520 years. (Ezekiel 4:6; Numbers 14:34) To run until the kingdom's establishment. (Luke 21:24; Daniel 7:13-14) Now let's look at just a few problems with this. The prophecy about seven times to pass until the rule is restored was about Nebuchadnezzar and was fulfilled in Nebuchadnezzar's lifetime. (Daniel 4:30-36) All credible scholars give 586 BC as the year Jerusalem was destroyed by the Babylonian Army. Ask a JW to verify that this happened in 607 BC. What did Jesus say to the Disciples when they asked if He was about to restore the kingdom to Israel? (Acts 1:6-7)

          How is it possible to reconcile the promise of Matthew 28:20 with the teaching that the return of Christ would be invisible and that He returned invisibly in 1914 AD?

          By observing the Memorial service (Lord’s Supper/Communion) Jehovah’s Witnesses contradict the teaching that Christ returned in 1914 AD and contradict the purpose of the ordinance, since this is to be observed "... until he arrives." (I Corinthians 11:26 NWT)

THE DESTINY OF THE EARTH

          “WHILE THE EARTH REMAINETH, seedtime and harvest, and cold and heat, and summer and winter, and day and night shall not cease.” (Genesis 8:22)

          “Who laid the foundations of the earth, that it should not be removed FOR EVER.” (Psalms 104:5; “for ever” or “forever” means “for ages” or “a long duration.”)

          “Thy faithfulness is unto all generations: thou hast established the earth, and it ABIDETH.” (Psalms 119:90; “abideth” is present tense. Note that “this day” in verse 91 is another way of saying “today.”)

          “One generation passeth away, and another generation cometh: but the earth abideth FOR EVER.” (Ecclesiastes 1:4; “for ever” or “forever” means “for ages” or “a long duration.”)

          “For thus saith the Lord that created the heavens; God himself that formed the earth and made it; he hath established it, he created it not in VAIN, he formed it to be inhabited: I am the Lord; and there is none else.” (Isaiah 45:18; “vain” means “without form;” compare Genesis 1:1-2)

          Note that so far these Bible passages do not conflict with the view that the earth will be destroyed by fire unless you ignore words and the meaning of words.

          “Of old hast thou laid the foundation of the earth: and the heavens are the work of thy hands. They SHALL PERISH, but thou shalt endure: yea, all of them shall WAX OLD LIKE A GARMENT; as a vesture shalt thou change them, and they shall be changed.” (Psalms 102:25-26)

          “Lift up your eyes to the heavens, and look upon the earth beneath: for THE HEAVENS SHALL VANISH AWAY LIKE SMOKE, and THE EARTH SHALL WAX OLD LIKE A GARMENT, and they that dwell therein shall die in like manner: but my salvation shall be for ever, and my righteousness shall not be abolished.” (Isaiah 51:6)

          “For verily I say unto you, TILL HEAVEN AND EARTH PASS, one jot or one tittle shall in no wise pass from the law, till all be fulfilled.” (Matthew 5:18)

          “HEAVEN AND EARTH SHALL PASS AWAY, but my words shall not pass away.” (Matthew 24:35; also Mark 13:31 & Luke 21:33)

          “And, Thou, Lord, in the beginning hast laid the foundation of the earth; and the heavens are the works of thine hands: THEY SHALL PERISH; but thou remainest; and THEY ALL SHALL WAX OLD AS DOTH A GARMENT; And as a vesture shalt thou fold them up, and they shall be changed: but thou art the same, and thy years shall not fail.” (Hebrews 1:10-12)

          “But the heavens and the earth, which are now, by the same word are kept in store, RESERVED UNTO FIRE against the day of judgment and perdition of ungodly men.” (2 Peter 3:7)

          “But the day of the Lord will come as a thief in the night; in the which THE HEAVENS SHALL PASS AWAY WITH A GREAT NOISE, and the elements shall melt with fervent heat, THE EARTH ALSO AND THE WORKS THAT ARE THEREIN SHALL BE BURNED UP. Seeing then that all these things shall be dissolved, what manner of persons ought ye to be in all holy conversation and godliness, Looking for and hasting unto the coming of the day of God, wherein THE HEAVENS BEING ON FIRE SHALL BE DISSOLVED, and the elements shall melt with fervent heat?” (2 Peter 3:10-12. In the Bible there are three different meanings of “Heavens,” and here it obviously refers to the atmosphere.)

          “And I saw a great white throne, and him that sat on it, from whose face the earth and the heaven fled away; and there was found no place for them.” (Revelation 20:11)

          “And I saw a new heaven and a new earth: for the first heaven and the first earth were passed away; and there was no more sea.” (Revelation 21:1)

The Heavenly Hope

          According to Watchtower publications only a little flock of 144,000 anointed from among mankind will go to heaven, while the other faithful Jehovah's Witnesses will live forever on earth. (Luke 12:32) But Christ spoke the words of Luke 12:32 when the disciples were still a small group, and He did not set a number. The Watchtower Society pulls the number 144,000 from Revelation 7:4 & 14:1-3, an entirely different context. Watchtower publications say that each group of 12,000 in Revelation 7:5-8 is figurative, but how can twelve figurative or symbolic groups of 12,000 each add up to a literal number of 144,000?

          Watchtower publications on the subject claim that the word temple in Revelation 7:15 refers to the courtyard of the Gentiles and then explain that Gentiles were allowed in the outer courtyard of the temple in Jerusalem but not allowed in the inner sanctuary. It is then explained that only the 144,000 spiritual Israelites enter heaven while the great crowd of other sheep who are not spiritual Jews are limited to the earthly courtyard of Jehovah's arrangement. The word rendered temple in Revelation 7:15 is the Greek word Naos, which refers to the inner sanctuary. If this passage were referring to the whole building or the courtyard of the Gentiles, the Greek word Hieron would have been used.

          In Revelation 7:9-11 you should note that the great crowd is standing before God's throne in the company of angels and Revelation 19:1 in the New World Translation clearly places the great crowd in heaven.

          "And Jesus said unto him, Verily I say unto thee, To day shalt thou be with me in paradise." (Luke 23:43 KJV) "And he said to him: 'Truly I tell you today, You will be with me in Paradise.'" (Luke 23:43 NWT) The word "Paradise" occurs three times in the New Testament: Luke 23:43, 2 Corinthians 12:4, and Revelation 2:7. Watchtower publications usually ignore the other two passages and insist that Luke 23:43 is a promise that the man to whom Jesus was speaking would be resurrected thousands of years later to live forever on an earth changed into one big beautiful garden park. The Watchtower interpretation is based on the placement of the comma in the words of Jesus; by placing the comma after the word "today" it appears that the resurrection in paradise that Jesus spoke of would be in the far future and not that day. Since there are no commas in the Greek text of these words the placement of the comma is left to the discretion of the translator. Most Bibles place the comma before the word "today," but the New World Translation puts the comma after the word "today." In the dozens of other New Testament passages where Jesus uses the expression "Truly I tell you" or "Truly I say to you" ("tell" and "say" are the same word in the Greek text) the New World Translation is consistent in the punctuation, but the New World Translation makes an exception in Luke 23:43. Why? If I were to vocally and personally say something to you right now it would be obvious that I would be speaking "today;" where does the context of Luke 23:43 indicate any logical reason that Jesus would feel the need to verbalize the obvious fact that He was speaking those words on that very day?

          Watchtower publications use Biblical language to identify Watchtower leadership as part of the anointed remnant of the little flock and promote the idea that this unique status qualifies them to disperse instruction and salvation to the great crowd of other sheep who are outside of the little flock. (John 10:16) If Christ wanted “other sheep” in John 10:16 to mean Gentile Christians how would he have changed the wording, grammar, and context of John 10:16? While the Bible says a lot about the Old Covenant for Jews and the New Covenant for Christians, where is the reference to a third arrangement for gathering a great crowd of other sheep that do not have a heavenly hope? (Consider John 17:20, 24 & 1 Peter 1:3-4)

          The new birth is a personal experience with Jesus Christ. (John 3:5-16; 5:39-40; Titus 3:5-7) “Jesus answered and said unto him, Art thou a master of Israel, and knowest not these things?” (John 3:10) In John 3:5-8 Christ was teaching something that Nicodemus should have already known through familiarity with Old Testament teachings about the Holy Spirit’s work of supernatural change in the lives of people in the new covenant age. (Ezekiel 11 & 36, Jeremiah 31, etc.) Where does the New Testament give any indication of a separate group or class of Christians that do not need the new birth?

 

The Bodily Resurrection

          The Gospel is the death, burial, and literal resurrection of Christ through which repentant sinners are justified (declared righteous) through faith in the person and work of Jesus Christ. (John 3:13-15; Acts 4:15-19; 1 Corinthians 15:1-4) The Bible clearly teaches the physical resurrection of Christ and all dead.      (Job 19:25, 27; Isaiah 26:19; John 5:28-29; Acts 24:15; 1 Corinthians 15:42-49; Philippians 3:21; Revelation 20:12-13; the body will be changed. -1 Corinthians 15:51-52; 2 Corinthians 5:4; Philippians 3:20-21; 1 Thessalonians 5:23) The resurrection was central to the preaching of the Apostles. (Acts 3:15; 4:1-2; 10:39-41; 17:18; 24:15) Jesus said that his body would be resurrected, and after the resurrection he verified this. (John 2:19-21; Luke 24:36-43) Denial of the bodily resurrection of Jesus Christ is calling Him accursed, for this would mean that He died under judgment of sin and is still under that judgment. (1 Corinthians 12:3)

          There are many nonessential matters about which we can disagree, especially conscientious differences of opinion, but you cannot be saved without the bodily resurrection. (Romans 10:9-10; 1 Corinthians 15:13-18) There is no hope of eternal salvation without the bodily resurrection of Christ. (Romans 5:8-10; 10:8-9) Without the bodily resurrection of Christ there is no blood atonement, and there is no salvation without the blood atonement. (Leviticus 17:11; Isaiah 53:5-6; Romans 5:8-11; 2 Corinthians 5:21; Hebrews 9:14; 10:12-14; 1 Peter 1:18-21; 2:24)

          One argument used by cults and liberal theologians goes like this: What if a dead human body was eaten by animals or insects that were in turn eaten by animals or insects so that the molecules of the body were scattered about and even became part or other creatures, or what if a dead man was cremated and his ashes were scattered over the ocean? Here are just three reasons this is not a valid argument:

·        God is omnipresent and omniscient and knows where those molecules are located.

·        The exact disposition of every molecule of the body is not the issue as material particles in this mortal body change constantly with no loss of personal identity.

·        The resurrection is a miracle and if we could completely understand the resurrection, it would not be a miracle.

          The Jehovah’s Witnesses (so-called) use two accounts about Christ not being recognized by those who knew Him as proof that He was resurrected in a different form. Watchtower publications claim that the disciples on the road to Emmaus did not recognize Christ because He was in a different form than when He was crucified. But this interpretation ignores the context. The disciples did not recognize Christ because He did not will it so. (Luke 24:16) After their faith was tested He opened their eyes and they recognized Him. (Luke 24:31) Watchtower publications claim that Christ appeared to Mary as the gardener. But the context makes it clear that it was Mary who made the mistake of thinking Christ was the gardener. (John 20:15-16)

          Watchtower publications use 1 Peter 3:18 to discredit the bodily resurrection and set forth the proposition that Christ was raised from the dead as a spirit. But how do you reconcile this interpretation of 1 Peter 3:18 with Romans 8:8-13, Galatians 5:24-25, Ephesians 6:18, and 1 Peter 4:6?

          Another argument is that 1 Corinthians 15:44-50 means a nonphysical resurrection. Let’s take a closer look at this. “It is sown a natural body; it is raised a spiritual body. There is a natural body, and there is a spiritual body.” (I Corinthians 15:44) The same Greek work rendered “spiritual” in I Corinthians 15:44 is rendered “spiritual” (or “supernatural” in some translations) in I Corinthians 10:4 in reference to a physical rock. The context of 1 Corinthians 2:15 makes it clear that the word “spiritual” does not there refer to an invisible man or an immaterial or nonphysical body. Likewise, in 1 Corinthians 15:44 the word “spiritual” refers to a Spirit-dominated and supernatural physical body. I Corinthians 15:50, which says "flesh and blood cannot inherit the kingdom of God," is not a denial of the bodily resurrection. The term "flesh and blood" occurs only five times in the New Testament, and in each case the reference is to mankind in their fallen state (unregenerate). (Matthew 16:17; 1 Corinthians 15:50; Galatians 1:16; Ephesians 6:12; Hebrews 2:14) “Flesh and blood” in 1 Corinthians 15:50 is a reference to natural man, that is, man in his sinful state; natural man “must be born again.” (John 3:3-8; Romans 8:1, 9-11, 14-17) The Bible does not say that people must stop being human or give up their physical bodies to enter heaven. “For this corruptible must put on incorruption, and this mortal must put on immortality.” (1 Corinthians 15:53) The words “put on” in 1 Corinthians 15:53 indicate adding something (incorruption & immortality) rather than taking away something (materiality or the physical body). Context and the use of words and grammar make it clear that 1 Corinthians 15:41-44 deals with the QUALITY of resurrected bodies and 1 Corinthians 15 deals with PHYSICAL resurrection.

THE WATCHTOWER INTERPRETATION OF EXODUS 3:15

          "Then God said once more to Moses: 'This is what you are to say to the sons of Israel, "Jehovah the God of YOUR forefathers, the God of Abraham, the God of Isaac and the God of Jacob, has sent me to YOU." This is my name to time indefinite, and this is the memorial of me to generation after generation.'"   (Exodus 3:15 NWT) Watchtower publications insist that Exodus 3:15 is a command to always refer to God as Jehovah forever and claim that the name Jehovah is the only name by which to address God.

          While God is known by the name Jehovah (or Yahweh), Jehovah is not the only name by which God is known. The Watchtower interpretation conflicts with the numerous Bible passages where God is identified in other ways besides the name Jehovah, such as the numerous times He is referred to as "the God of Abraham, the God of Isaac, and the God of Jacob" without any mention of the name Jehovah. Jesus never addressed the Father as Jehovah or referred to the Father as Jehovah, and He thus demonstrated that Jehovah is not the only way that God can be addressed.

          Exodus 3:15 is dealing with more than the use of a word. God was telling Moses that He would be manifest in the nature expressed by that name, that is, He would manifest that in His true nature and being He is the eternally self-existent and sovereign God. (Consider 1 Kings 18:36-37)

ROMANS 10:13 IN THE NEW WORLD TRANSLATION

          "For whosoever shall call upon the name of the Lord shall be saved." (Romans 10:13 KJV) "For 'everyone who calls on the name of Jehovah will be saved.'" (Romans 10:13 NWT) "For if you publicly declare that 'word in your own mouth,' that Jesus is Lord, and exercise faith in your heart that God raised him up from the dead, you will be saved." (Romans 10:9 NWT) "Let it be known to all of YOU and to all the people of Israel, that in the name of Jesus Christ the Nazarene', whom YOU impaled but whom God raised up from the dead, by this one does this man stand here sound in front of YOU. This is 'the stone that was treated by YOU builders as of no account that has become the head of the corner.' Furthermore, there is no salvation in anyone else, for there is not another name under heaven that has been given among men by which we must get saved." (Acts 4:10-12 NWT)

          Although including the name Jehovah in Romans 10:13 indicates that Jesus is Jehovah when compared to Romans 10:9, this contradicts the teaching on salvation presented in Romans 10:9 and Acts 4:12. Since the name Jehovah does not occur in any ancient Greek manuscripts of the New Testament and every ancient Greek manuscript of the New Testament uses the Greek word Kurios (Lord) in Romans 10:13, what is the basis for inserting the name Jehovah into Romans 10:13 in the New World Translation? If God had wanted Romans 10:9-12 to make it clear that Jesus is the "Lord" being referred to in Romans 10:13 how would He have changed the wording of this text?

HOLIDAYS & BIRTHDAYS

          “One man esteemeth one day above another: another esteemeth every day alike. Let every man be fully persuaded in his own mind. He that regardeth the day, regardeth it unto the Lord; and he that regardeth not the day, to the Lord he doth not regard it. He that eateth, eateth to the Lord, for he giveth God thanks; and he that eateth not, to the Lord he eateth not, and giveth God thanks. For none of us liveth to himself, and no man dieth to himself. For whether we live, we live unto the Lord; and whether we die, we die unto the Lord: whether we live therefore, or die, we are the Lord's. For to this end Christ both died, and rose, and revived, that he might be Lord both of the dead and living. But why dost thou judge thy brother? or why dost thou set at nought thy brother? for we shall all stand before the judgment seat of Christ.” (Romans 14:5-10)

          The Watchtower Society prohibits Jehovah’s Witnesses from celebrating birthdays & religious holidays, and in Christian circles there is sometimes debate over whether it is proper or sinful for Christians to celebrate Christmas and Easter.

          Where does the Bible condemn celebrating and being happy that someone you love was born and lives, especially when it comes to the birth of our Saviour (regardless of whether we have the correct date or not)? What Bible truth or principle is being violated? The death, burial, and resurrection of Christ, and the blood atonement, would not have been possible without the virgin birth of Christ.

          Watchtower literature points to two accounts of kings (Herod & Pharaoh) celebrating their birthdays and having someone killed to condemn birthdays and Christmas. It should be noted that these ancient kings (dictators) had people killed every day of the year and not just on their birthdays. According to chapter one of Job (note verse one), Job and his family celebrated birthdays and had such a good time at this that Job felt compelled to offer sacrifices just in case they might have gone too far in their merrymaking. Of course, Watchtower publications point out that in chapter one of Job there is no mention of the word “birthday;” so, does that mean it is alright for a Jehovah’s Witness to have a celebration on “his day” if he does not refer to it as a birthday party?

          The explanation in Watchtower publications that Jehovah’s Witnesses do not celebrate religious holidays, such as Christmas and Easter, because those holidays are on the same dates as pagan holidays makes me wonder why the Watchtower Society allows Jehovah’s Witnesses to celebrate graduations and wedding anniversaries; every date on the Gregorian Calendar was a pagan holiday somewhere. Wedding rings have a pagan origin, so why does the Watchtower Society allow Jehovah’s Witnesses to wear wedding rings? Wedding cakes have a pagan origin, so why does the Watchtower Society allow wedding cakes? The names of the days and months on a calendar have pagan origins, so why does the Watchtower Society allow Jehovah’s Witnesses to have calendars? The use of clocks and timepieces and the division of the day into the hours comes from astrology, so why does the Watchtower Society allow Jehovah’s Witnesses to use clocks and watches?

          The Bible forbids idolatry and immorality but does not include a blanket condemnation or prohibition against everything pagans happen to do.

          Consider: “Him that is weak in the faith receive ye, but not to doubtful disputations. … Who art thou that judgest another man's servant? to his own master he standeth or falleth. Yea, he shall be holden up: for God is able to make him stand. One man esteemeth one day above another: another esteemeth every day alike. Let every man be fully persuaded in his own mind. He that regardeth the day, regardeth it unto the Lord; and he that regardeth not the day, to the Lord he doth not regard it. He that eateth, eateth to the Lord, for he giveth God thanks; and he that eateth not, to the Lord he eateth not, and giveth God thanks.” (Romans 14:1, 4-6) This was initially written to Christians in Rome where converted Gentiles there came from a background of pagan holidays (e.g., Saturnalia) and the converted Jews came from a background of Jewish holidays (e.g., Hanukkah). If you happen to know someone who uses Christmas or Easter as an opportunity to worship Baal or Tammuz, I will agree that they are sinning and need to repent of idolatry, but it is not a sin to set aside a day to honour the Lord and enjoy fellowship.

Was the Star of Bethlehem a demon as taught in Watchtower Publications?

          Why did the Magi connect the star with the birth of a king of the Jews? There was a Jewish population in Babylonia then, and the Magi would have had a knowledge of the prophecy: "There shall come a Star out of Jacob."          (Numbers 24:17) Even in the Gentile world there was anticipation of a great deliverer or savior to arise, and regardless of whether the "star" is intended to refer to a literal star or a great ruler, if this prophecy was recognized as coming from a Hebrew document and referring to Jews it would have been natural for Babylonian Magi to look toward Jerusalem when they saw some brilliant new star in the sky.   (Matthew 2:1-9)

          Matthew 2:9 has aroused much conjecture, especially as to how the "star ... stood over where the young child was." Jehovah’s Witnesses say it was a demon. But the language or wording used here is of the same character as that which we use when speaking of the rising and setting of the sun or the moon. Whether it was a comet (the Greek word for "star" also applies to comets) or a nova or other celestial phenomenon, apparently the star was near the horizon and thus would easily appear to stand "over where the child was."

THE WATCHTOWER SOCIETY & NEW LIGHT

          Over the decades of their history the Watchtower Society has changed its official stand or doctrine on various issues, e.g., celebration of Christmas, the Great Pyramid being inspired of God like the Bible, the year 1914 AD being the year of the return of Christ is based on the measurements of the Great Pyramid, that Black people are inferior to White people, the use of blood as medicine, the stand on the flag and service in the armed forces, the prohibitions against vaccinations and organ transplants, whether the second coming was in 1874 or 1914, predictions of dates for Armageddon that never came to pass, if or how much association with disfellowshipped persons is allowed, whether disassociated persons must be shunned the same as disfellowshipped persons, etc.. However, if you point out the string of past errors and doctrinal flip-flopping to a Jehovah's Witness it is likely that he will respond that this proves that he is in God's organization and that God is making their light get brighter. Watchtower publications use Proverbs 4:18 to mean that the introduction of "New Light" proves that they are God's organization. "But the path of the righteous ones is like the bright light that is getting lighter and lighter until the day is firmly established." (Proverbs 4:18 NWT) However, this interpretation of Proverbs 4:18 ignores the context, which demonstrates that Proverbs 4:18 is not a justification for doctrinal changes or a reference to an organization but is a contrast with the way of the wicked. Note the next verse: "The way of the wicked ones is like the gloom; they have not known at what they keep stumbling." (Proverbs 4:19 NWT)

          The requirement that any light from God must be true is an obvious and essential part of the theory about the light getting brighter; the light is not supposed to extinguish the old light but merely adds to the old light. An examination of the history of Watchtower changes reveals that the "new light" has not always been true, and often the "new light" has been a re-introduction of "old Light" that had been previously discarded as error or falsehood.

          Question for Jehovah’s Witnesses: Does the “New Light” always expound or add to the “Old Light,” or does the “New Light” ever replace or disprove the “Old Light?” Does it ever bother you that if you do not change your beliefs every time the Watchtower leadership change their teachings you could be considered an apostate and be disfellowshipped? Do you ever wonder if a change in Watchtower teachings or policies means they had the truth and denied it or were previously teaching a falsehood with which you were forbidden to disagree? How certain are you that their current teachings and policies on anything are right? Have you done any independent Bible study and research to see if what you are taught is right? (Acts 17:11; 1 Thessalonians 5:21; 2 Timothy 2:15)

WATCHTOWER NEUTRALITY

          The so-called Jehovah’s Witnesses teach that separation from the world means that Christians must not vote or otherwise participate in politics or public affairs or serve in the military (not even to defend their country against aggression). The separation taught in the Bible is godly conduct, distinctions, and relationships within society, separation from the sins of society, and is not isolation from society or neutrality concerning politics, community affairs, or even war. (Matthew 22:21; Romans 13:1-7; Ephesians 5:3-11; I Timothy 2:1-2; I Peter 2:11-12)

          The Watchtower Society forbids JWs from joining the armed forces for any reason, and they will not baptize a member of the armed forces until he leaves the armed forces. (Anyone remember Cornelius? -Acts 10) God ordained human government to protect the people and punish criminals, including criminal nations, and having armed forces is part of God's purpose for human government. A soldier merely doing his duty is not a murderer; a soldier is a representative of the government, and it is the government that bears responsibility for the killing involved. (Romans 13:1-4; I Peter 2:13-14) Granted, sometimes human governments (being composed of humans) abuse or exceed their authority, but that is another issue. The same God who said "Thou shalt not kill" also told His people to fight wars and execute various criminals, and a passage must be understood or interpreted in relation to its context and the whole Bible. In Exodus 20:13 the word rendered "kill" (Hebrew: Ratsach) means illicit premeditated murder. In the Old Testament different Hebrew words were used for killing in self-defense, killing in the line of duty, etc.

          What about Matthew 5:39? “But I say unto you, That ye resist not evil: but whosoever shall smite thee on thy right cheek, turn to him the other also.” (Matthew 5:39) This is not condemning self-defense or military service; Christ was using an idiom. Note that the Greek word here rendered "smite" is Rhapizo, which means "slap." This does not imply anything against left-handed people, but most people are right-handed, and it is necessary to approach someone from behind to slap the right cheek with the right hand; this is dealing with backbiting.

          What about Matthew 26:52 (a favorite JW proof text)? “Then said Jesus unto him, Put up again thy sword into his place: for all they that take the sword shall perish with the sword.” (Matthew 26:52) Again, the passage must be interpreted or understood in relation to context. “And while he yet spake, lo, Judas, one of the twelve, came, and with him a great multitude with swords and staves, from the chief priests and elders of the people. Now he that betrayed him gave them a sign, saying, Whomsoever I shall kiss, that same is he: hold him fast. And forthwith he came to Jesus, and said, Hail, master; and kissed him. And Jesus said unto him, Friend, wherefore art thou come? Then came they, and laid hands on Jesus, and took him. And, behold, one of them which were with Jesus stretched out his hand, and drew his sword, and struck a servant of the high priest's, and smote off his ear. Then said Jesus unto him, Put up again thy sword into his place: for all they that take the sword shall perish with the sword. Thinkest thou that I cannot now pray to my Father, and he shall presently give me more than twelve legions of angels? But how then shall the scriptures be fulfilled, that thus it must be? In that same hour said Jesus to the multitudes, Are ye come out as against a thief with swords and staves for to take me? I sat daily with you teaching in the temple, and ye laid no hold on me. But all this was done, that the scriptures of the prophets might be fulfilled. Then all the disciples forsook him, and fled.” (Matthew 26:47-56)

          What about the commands in the New Testament to love enemies? In Koine Greek the word for enemies in combat is Polemos. The Koine Greek word for a personal antagonist or personal enemies is Eckthros, which is rendered “enemies” in the commands to love your enemies, and those commands are not prohibitions against military service.

          What about Isaiah 2:4 and similar passages? “And he shall judge among the nations, and shall rebuke many people: and they shall beat their swords into plowshares, and their spears into pruninghooks: nation shall not lift up sword against nation, neither shall they learn war any more.” (Isaiah 2:4) This is not a prohibition against military service; this is a prophecy about the future actions of nations that will be inevitable because of the absence of the threat of war and the universality of righteousness.

          If the New Testament passages used by Jehovah's Witnesses to encourage pacifism mean military service is forbidden for Christians, why did Christ and the Apostles neglect to clarify that, where in the Holy Bible is any soldier told to resign from military service, and why are so many soldiers mentioned in the New Testament praised as Christians, God-fearers, and men of good character? (Matthew 8:5; 27:54; Mark 15:39-45; Luke 7:2; 23:47; Acts 10:1; 21:32; 28:16; etc.)

          One of the reasons Jehovah’s Witnesses maintain political neutrality is their belief that the end of the world is near. The argument that Christians should be neutral because the end is near is unrealistic and unscriptural. Christians should not be basing their decisions, plans, and goals on things they do not and cannot know. (Consider Acts 1:6-8 & Luke 19:13) Using theories about the fulfillment of Bible prophecy to justify apathy ignores the implications of the arguments being used to justify the apathy being promoted: The longer you keep a sinking ship afloat the more time there is left to rescue the perishing. (Incidentally, this is one reason I tend to avoid arguing about the time of Christ’s return and the various beliefs about this. The Bible clearly teaches the Christ will return to earth personally and visibly, but when he does return, we might find that we were all wrong on a few points. On the way up one of us might point at the other and say, “I told you so,” but it is more likely that we will just rejoice that we are redeemed.)

          Why should Christians be involved in politics and community affairs? Man is a natural-born sinner, inherently depraved. It is not human government that is bad but rather those who comprise human government, which is why Christian influence is essential. Christians are the salt of the earth and the light of the world. Salt cleanses, purifies, preserves, and makes people thirsty, and light dispels darkness. Christians are supposed to be a cleansing and illuminating influence, impacting society and culture for righteousness. (Matthew 5:13-16)

          Should we interpret the words of Christ in Matthew 6:9-11 to mean that Christ was promoting laziness and idleness? No, a good job should be considered an answer to prayer for necessities. The exhortation to pray for all men and for all that are in authority does not imply neutrality regarding politics and community affairs; opportunities to influence society and culture and participate in politics and community affairs should be considered answers to such prayers. (1 Timothy 2:1-2)

          The Christian worldview gives a comprehensive understanding of reality, and the Bible provides guidance in every area of human existence, including civil government. Consider that Joseph and Daniel served as public officials in civil government and exerted their influence to benefit the nations in which they lived, and Jesus cared for the spiritual and physical needs of people. (Healing the sick and feeding the hungry was an extension of the message of the Gospel.) The “good works” of believers should include every area of life, and since human government has a legitimate God-ordained role with significant real-life implications it is wrong for Christians to be neutral or uninvolved in politics and community affairs. (Galatians 6:10; Ephesians 2:10) How can you claim to love and care about others while deliberately neglecting the arena with the most impact on basic rights, freedom, welfare, and justice?

WATCHTOWER SHUNNING

          The Watchtower Society requires Jehovah’s Witnesses to completely shun ex-JWs whether they were formally disfellowshipped by a judicial committee or disassociated themselves. Watchtower publications use Matthew 18:17,                  1 Corinthians 5:9-13, & 2 John 10 as proof texts to support their policy on shunning. But consider:

          Matthew 18:15-17 outlines the pathway of church discipline, and 1 Corinthians 5:1-13 outlines the process of church discipline if a sinning church member refuses to repent. Both passages teach treating a disfellowshipped person as an unbeliever and not a regular church member, but not strict shunning.

          “If there come any unto you, and bring not this doctrine, receive him not into your house, neither bid him God speed.” (2 John 10) In the New Testament, congregations are often referred to as houses because the early Christians usually met for worship in private homes. (Romans 16:5; Colossians 4:15; 2 Timothy 3:6; Philemon 2; 2 John 10) 2 John 10 refers to a congregation, and this passage is dealing with a prerequisite for church membership and ministry and not who you are allowed to greet or who you can accept into your own private home.

          Jehovah’s Witnesses should be asked: Where does the New Testament tell Christians to shun heathens and tax collectors (publicans)? (Watchtower publications use Matthew 18:17 to support Watchtower shunning.) While chapter five of First Corinthians outlines limiting association with Christians that persist in gross sins, where is there an indication of strict shunning or application to family members? Why is the Watchtower interpretation of 2 John 10 only applied to ex-JWs? Are Jehovah’s Witnesses allowed to greet non-JWs and receive non-JW relatives or friends into their private homes?

The Two-Witness Rule

Jehovah’s Witnesses hide and cover for rapists, child molesters, and child rapists using the two-witness rule, requiring two or more eyewitnesses in accord with their interpretations of Deuteronomy 17:6, Deuteronomy 19:5, and First Timothy 5:19, and rape or child molestation usually involves only one eyewitness unless the perpetrator confesses. Let's take a closer look at these proof texts:

Consider the context of Deuteronomy 17:6. Deuteronomy 17:2-6 deals with the crime of apostacy, and with apostacy there is no physical evidence, there is only eyewitness testimony.

It is argued that any iniquity or sin is covered by the two witness rule according to Deuteronomy 19:15, but the context includes instructions on handling cases involving only one eyewitness, and the command to thoroughly investigate indicates looking for hard evidence other than eyewitness testimony. (Deuteronomy 19:15-21) Also consider Deuteronomy 22:23-27, where a conviction was possible in a case where there was only one eyewitness. How could the Bible require two or more witnesses for a conviction and then provide for a conviction in a case involving only one eyewitness without contradicting itself? "Witness" (Hebrew: Ed)  in Deuteronomy 19:15 also means tangible or physical evidence. (Consider Genesis 31:44, 48; Exodus 22:13; Deuteronomy 31:19; Joshua 22:26-27; Psalm 89:37; Isaiah 19:19-20) The Bible did not require two or more eyewitnesses, as the word translated as "witness" means evidence and not necessarily an eyewitness, so what the Bible required was that there must be more than one piece of incriminating evidence for a conviction. In cases of rape or child molesting there are normally numerous evidences that are ignored by JW Elders or overlooked because they are not police or detectives trained to handle crime and criminals. (Consider Romans 13:1-7)

New Testament references to the two witness rule always refer to it in the context of the Mosaic Law, so First Timothy 5:19 is obviously merely saying not to listen to accusations against a faithful elder of good repute unless there is strong evidence (a protection against slander), and not advising the cover-up of serious crimes. (Matthew 18:16; John 8:17; Hebrews 10:28)

Jehovah's Witnesses should be asked: If the Watchtower Society began teaching that any incident of rape or child molestation should be reported to the police as soon as possible even if the victim is the only eyewitness to the crime would you agree with that policy? How are you certain that their current teachings and policies on this are right, and does it ever bother you that if you don’t change your beliefs every time The Watchtower Society changes their teachings you could be considered an apostate and be disfellowshipped?

The Holy Bible or Watchtower Publications?

          How is it that Jehovah’s Witnesses sincerely believe obvious heresies even though they appear to study more than most? The problem lies with what they respect as the final authority or the standard of truth. In their indoctrination a subtle switch was made from respect for the Holy Bible as the final authority to respect for the Watchtower Society as the final authority, and this makes them interpret Bible passages in relation to Watchtower publications instead of interpreting Bible passages in relation to context and the whole Bible. In their studies, meetings, and literature attention is subtly drawn away from the importance and authority of Scripture and focused on Watchtower publications and teachings, and the superiority of Watchtower insights over other religious groups is emphasized. When someone puts the words of men above the word of God, they naturally interpret Scriptures in relation to publications and human theories instead of interpreting Bible passages in relation to context and the whole Bible.                   (1 Timothy 1:5-7; 2 Timothy 2:15; 2 Peter 3:16)

          First-hand Bible knowledge from personal Bible study is essential. We do need ministers, teachers, Christian fellowship, and Christian literature to help us, and there are difficulties in the Bible, but for the most part the Bible is self-explanatory and self-interpreting when one is familiar with its contents.         (Psalm 119:130; Proverbs 2:3-6; 2 Timothy 2:15; 3:16-17; Ephesians 4:11-15;       1 Peter 2:2)

          “But the anointing which ye have received of him abideth in you, and ye need not that any man teach you: but as the same anointing teacheth you of all things, and is truth, and is no lie, and even as it hath taught you, ye shall abide in him.” (1 John 2:27) As is true today, when John wrote the First Epistle of John there were a lot of divisions, programs, heresies, and fads spreading throughout Christendom, and many false teachers working to corrupt the churches.           (Acts 20:29-30; 2 Corinthians 11:14-15; 2 Peter 2; Jude) Deceivers often claim to have a special enlightenment or illumination, superior insight, or special key to understanding, or claim that one needs a superior spirituality or special revelation (which they claim to have) to know the truth, which is the reason for the warning in 1 John 2:27. While there are difficulties in the Bible and we occasionally need help, for the most part the Bible is self-interpreting and self-explanatory when one is familiar with its contents, and while God does call people to ministry this does not mean they have a special key to understanding Scripture that other genuine believers do not have.

          “But the natural man receiveth not the things of the Spirit of God: for they are foolishness unto him: neither can he know them, because they are spiritually discerned.” (1 Corinthians 2:14) Deceivers like to use this passage to insist that it takes a special enlightenment or key to understanding (which they claim to have) to understand Scripture. This passage does not say the Bible can only be understood by certain gifted individuals, it says that though natural men can understand what the words in the Bible mean they decide that what the Bible says is foolish. A good example of this can be seen when atheists argue with what they know and acknowledge that the Genesis account of creation says, it means nothing to them because of their lack of spiritual discernment. The Bible was written to be read and understood by ordinary people and God's truth is not hidden from everyone except for a few clever individuals. The Holy Bible is the final authority, and the truth can withstand questions and critical analysis. (Psalm 119:130;       Acts 17:11; 1 Thessalonians 5:21; 2 Timothy 2:15; 3:16-17)

          When Christ walked the earth, he deliberately bypassed the religious elite and highly educated to reveal truths to ordinary people, and the Apostles commended and encouraged personal growth, study, and discernment. The Bible was written to be read and understood by ordinary people and God's truth is not hidden from everyone except for a few clever individuals. So why should we assume that God intended for us to accept the teachings of people claiming to have some special key to understanding Scripture without personal study and discernment to verify their teachings?